A client comes to the clinic and reports having weakness in the left arm and leg for the past week. The nurse should perform which type of neurological exam?

Glasgow Coma Scale

Complete neurological examination

Muscular examination

Neurologic recheck examination

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A.   The Glasgow Coma Scale assesses a patient's level of consciousness, not specifically limb weakness.
B.   A complete neurological examination would involve assessing cranial nerves, motor and sensory functions, reflexes, coordination, and gait, which are essential when a client presents with unilateral weakness in the arm and leg.
C.   A muscular examination might focus more on muscle strength and tone but might not cover the breadth of neurological assessment needed in this scenario.
D.   Neurologic recheck examination suggests a reassessment after an initial neurological exam but doesn’t specify the need for a comprehensive evaluation.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Reassurance is important, but it should be given after a thorough assessment and appropriate actions have been taken.
B. Completing an assessment and promptly informing the physician allows for timely intervention in case of testicular torsion or other serious conditions causing severe testicular pain.
C. Performing a focused assessment is crucial but shouldn't delay immediate notification of the physician in such a critical situation.
D. Documenting pain assessment is important but not the priority when a client presents with severe, acute pain in a sensitive area like the testicles.

A. "With aging, a large amount of subcutaneous fat is lost, which gives the appearance of decreased height." B. "With aging, the spine is not as flexible, which doesn't permit the individual to stand as tall." C. "With aging, the cartilage between the bones in the spine gets worn down, which causes decreased height." D. "With aging, thickening of the intervertebral disks occurs, which causes pressure breakdown of the spinal vertebrae."

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Loss of subcutaneous fat might contribute to changes in appearance but is not primarily responsible for the decrease in height with aging.
B. Reduced spinal flexibility may contribute to posture changes but doesn’t sufficiently explain the decrease in height.
C. With aging, the intervertebral discs and cartilage between spinal bones wear down, leading to a decrease in height due to changes in the spine's structure.
D. Thickening of intervertebral discs is not a typical occurrence with aging and does not explain the decrease in height.

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A client comes to the clinic and reports having weakness in the left arm and leg for the past week. The nurse should perform which type of neurological exam?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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