A client currently taking a first-generation antipsychotic (FGA) comes to the clinic for evaluation. The client presents with a shuffling gait and mild tremors. Which order would the nurse expect the provider to give?
Order a direct dopamine antagonist.
Increase the dose of the antipsychotic medication.
Withhold the medication for two days.
Order an anticholinergic medication.
The Correct Answer is D
Anticholinergic medications can be used to treat extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) such as tremors and shuffling gait that can occur as side effects of first-generation antipsychotics ¹².
Option A is not correct because a direct dopamine antagonist would not be used to treat EPS.
Option B is not correct because increasing the dose of the antipsychotic medication could worsen EPS.
Option C is not correct because withholding the medication for two days could lead to a relapse of the underlying condition being treated by the antipsychotic.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The nurse would expect the provider to order acetaminophen or ibuprofen for the client. Headache, fever, chills, and muscle aches are common side effects of interferon beta-1a ¹⁴. These side effects are often referred to as flu-like symptoms and can be managed with over-the-counter pain relievers such as acetaminophen or ibuprofen ¹.
Option B is incorrect because an evaluation by a physician may not be necessary if the client is experiencing common side effects of interferon beta-1a.
Option C is incorrect because discontinuing the medication immediately may not be necessary if the client is experiencing common side effects of interferon beta-1a.
Option D is incorrect because checking the hemoglobin may not be necessary if the client is experiencing common side effects of interferon beta-1a.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Reduced hepatic blood flow can decrease the metabolism and excretion of many drugs, requiring that doses of some drugs be decreased ². This can increase the risk of medication toxicity in older adults.
Option B is not correct because reduced body fat is not a physiological change associated with aging.
Option C is not correct because the glomerular filtration rate decreases with age ².
Option D is not correct because gastric motility decreases with age ².
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