A client frequently expresses intense feelings of guilt and self-criticism after minor mistakes, striving for perfection and strict adherence to rules. According to Freud's psychoanalytic theory, which function of the superego best explains this behavior?
it internalizes societal and parental standards to enforce moral judgments.
It mediates between the demands of the id and the constraints of reality.
It represses unconscious conflicts to reduce anxiety and protect the ego.
It seeks immediate gratification of instinctual desires regardless of consequences.
The Correct Answer is A
Rationale:
A. The superego represents internalized moral standards and ideals from parents and society. When overly dominant, it can lead to excessive guilt, perfectionism, and harsh self-criticism—exactly as described in the client.
B. This describes the ego, which balances the id, superego, and reality—not the superego itself.
C. Repression is a defense mechanism used by the ego to manage anxiety, not a primary function of the superego.
D. This describes the id, which is driven by the pleasure principle—not the superego.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Rationale:
A. This response is empathetic, supportive, and therapeutic. It validates the nurse’s concern for safety while inviting the client to explore the emotional triggers behind the self-injury, which is key in caring for individuals with BPD.
B. This response is judgmental and dismissive, which can damage the therapeutic relationship and escalate emotional distress in a client with BPD.
C. While medication review may be necessary later, immediately shifting focus to medication ignores the root emotional cause of the behavior and does not address the current crisis therapeutically.
D. Although setting limits is important, this response is overly directive and lacks empathy, which may come off as punitive rather than supportive.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Complete dopamine blockade is more characteristic of first-generation antipsychotics and can lead to significant side effects; aripiprazole does not act this way.
B. Aripiprazole does not directly enhance dopamine release; instead, it modulates dopamine activity.
C. Aripiprazole is a partial dopamine agonist, meaning it balances dopamine activity—reducing excessive dopamine in some areas of the brain (to treat psychosis) while enhancing it where it's low (to improve mood and motivation).
D. Aripiprazole acts on both dopamine and serotonin receptors, not serotonin alone, and is primarily used for psychotic disorders rather than depression exclusively.
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