A client is at risk for a spontaneous abortion at 14 weeks gestation.
The client's two previous pregnancies were miscarriages in the same gestational time frame.
The client states, "They want to sew my cervix shut.”. The nurse shares the terminology for surgical treatment of an incompetent cervix.
Which of the following would the nurse explain?
Aminoinfusion.
Hysterectomy.
Cerclage.
Beta-adrenergic agonist therapy.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
Aminoinfusion is a procedure where fluid is infused into the amniotic sac. It is used to treat certain complications during labor but is not related to treating an incompetent cervix.
Choice B rationale
Hysterectomy is a surgical procedure to remove the uterus and is not a treatment for an incompetent cervix. It is typically performed for conditions such as cancer, severe bleeding, or other significant uterine issues.
Choice C rationale
Cerclage is the correct term for the surgical procedure used to treat an incompetent cervix. It involves stitching the cervix closed to prevent premature dilation, which can lead to miscarriage or preterm birth.
Choice D rationale
Beta-adrenergic agonist therapy is used to delay preterm labor by relaxing the uterus but does not address the structural issue of an incompetent cervix. It is a medication-based approach rather than a surgical one. .
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While rupturing membranes can be a concern, the primary issue with a vaginal exam in the presence of placenta previa is the risk of severe bleeding. This choice is partially correct but not the most accurate answer.
Choice B rationale
With placenta previa, the placenta covers the cervix, and a vaginal exam could easily disrupt it, leading to significant vaginal bleeding. This bleeding can be dangerous for both the mother and the baby, making this the most accurate reason to avoid a vaginal exam.
Choice C rationale
Infection risk is a concern with any invasive procedure, but it is not the primary reason to avoid a vaginal exam in the case of placenta previa. The main concern is the risk of bleeding.
Choice D rationale
Initiating preterm labor is a possible risk with any vaginal exam late in pregnancy, but it is not the primary concern in cases of placenta previa. The main issue is the potential for causing severe bleeding.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Performing another vaginal exam does not directly influence labor progress. Labor can progress naturally without repeated exams, which can introduce unnecessary risk.
Choice B rationale
While vaginal exams can be uncomfortable, pain is not the primary reason to avoid multiple exams, especially when managing potential complications.
Choice C rationale
Vaginal exams might lead to minor bleeding due to irritation, but the risk of bleeding is not a primary concern in this context.
Choice D rationale
The most significant reason to avoid frequent vaginal exams after PPROM is the increased risk of infection. Each exam provides a potential pathway for bacteria to ascend, leading to complications like chorioamnionitis.
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