A client is at risk for a spontaneous abortion at 14 weeks gestation.
The client's two previous pregnancies were miscarriages in the same gestational time frame.
The client states, "They want to sew my cervix shut.”. The nurse shares the terminology for surgical treatment of an incompetent cervix.
Which of the following would the nurse explain?
Aminoinfusion.
Hysterectomy.
Cerclage.
Beta-adrenergic agonist therapy.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
Aminoinfusion is a procedure where fluid is infused into the amniotic sac. It is used to treat certain complications during labor but is not related to treating an incompetent cervix.
Choice B rationale
Hysterectomy is a surgical procedure to remove the uterus and is not a treatment for an incompetent cervix. It is typically performed for conditions such as cancer, severe bleeding, or other significant uterine issues.
Choice C rationale
Cerclage is the correct term for the surgical procedure used to treat an incompetent cervix. It involves stitching the cervix closed to prevent premature dilation, which can lead to miscarriage or preterm birth.
Choice D rationale
Beta-adrenergic agonist therapy is used to delay preterm labor by relaxing the uterus but does not address the structural issue of an incompetent cervix. It is a medication-based approach rather than a surgical one. .
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Ibuprofen is not recommended during pregnancy, especially in the later stages, as it can cause harm to the fetus and affect amniotic fluid levels.
Choice B rationale
While hydration is crucial for managing Hyperemesis Gravidarum, 0.9% Sodium Chloride alone won't address the underlying symptoms like nausea and vomiting effectively.
Choice C rationale
Magnesium Sulfate is typically used to prevent seizures in preeclampsia, not for Hyperemesis Gravidarum.
Choice D rationale
Pyridoxine (vitamin B6) is often recommended for Hyperemesis Gravidarum as it can help reduce nausea and vomiting.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker and can lower blood pressure, but this is not its primary intended effect in this scenario.
Choice B rationale
While nifedipine can increase heart rate as a side effect, this does not indicate its primary effectiveness.
Choice C rationale
Nifedipine effectively decreases uterine contractions in preterm labor by inhibiting calcium entry into muscle cells, thus reducing their contractility.
Choice D rationale
Nifedipine does not directly decrease nausea, so this is not an appropriate measure of its effectiveness.
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