A client is diagnosed with a seizure disorder and is completing testing before discharge from the healthcare facility. What information should the practical nurse (PN) reinforce to avoid the incidence of seizure episodes? Select all that apply.
Carry phone number of Epilepsy Foundation at all times.
Stay well rested and avoid a large caffeine intake.
Avoid flashing lights and excessive visual stimuli.
Seek a safe place if sensing dizziness or sensory disturbances.
Generic medications are safe to substitute for trade name brands.
Correct Answer : B,C,D
Choice A reason: Carrying the phone number of the Epilepsy Foundation at all times is helpful for accessing support and information, but it does not directly prevent seizure episodes. It is more of an additional resource rather than a preventive measure.
Choice B reason: Staying well rested and avoiding a large caffeine intake is crucial for managing seizure disorders. Lack of sleep and excessive caffeine can trigger seizures in some individuals. Ensuring adequate rest and limiting caffeine consumption can help reduce the likelihood of seizure episodes.
Choice C reason: Avoiding flashing lights and excessive visual stimuli is important for individuals with seizure disorders, as these can be potential triggers for seizures. Sensitivity to visual stimuli can lead to photosensitive epilepsy, making it essential to minimize exposure to such triggers.
Choice D reason: Seeking a safe place if sensing dizziness or sensory disturbances is vital for preventing injury during a seizure. Recognizing early warning signs and finding a safe environment can help protect the individual from harm during a seizure episode.
Choice E reason: Generic medications are generally considered safe to substitute for trade name brands, but it is essential to consult with a healthcare provider before making any changes to medication. Ensuring consistency in medication and avoiding abrupt changes is crucial for managing seizure disorders effectively.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Sputum is the most appropriate specimen to collect prior to the initiation of antibiotic therapy in a client with suspected pneumonia. Sputum cultures can help identify the specific bacteria or other pathogens causing the infection, allowing for targeted antibiotic therapy. Collecting the sputum sample before starting antibiotics ensures that the culture results are not influenced by the medication, leading to more accurate identification of the causative agent and more effective treatment.
Choice B reason: Urine is not the appropriate specimen to collect for diagnosing pneumonia. While urine cultures can be useful for diagnosing urinary tract infections or detecting certain pathogens through urine antigen tests, they are not relevant to identifying the etiology of a respiratory infection like pneumonia. The focus should be on obtaining samples directly from the respiratory system.
Choice C reason: A throat smear can be useful for diagnosing upper respiratory tract infections, such as strep throat, caused by Group A Streptococcus. However, it is not the most relevant test for diagnosing pneumonia, which affects the lower respiratory tract. A sputum sample is more appropriate for identifying the pathogens responsible for pneumonia.
Choice D reason: Blood cultures can be useful for detecting bacteremia or septicemia, especially in severe cases of pneumonia where the infection has spread to the bloodstream. However, they are not the primary method for identifying the specific cause of pneumonia. Blood cultures are typically used in conjunction with other tests, such as sputum cultures, to provide a comprehensive diagnosis.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Hydrocortisone is a corticosteroid that can cause fluid retention and increase blood pressure in some individuals. It is important for the PN to monitor the client's blood pressure and educate them about this potential side effect.
Choice B reason: Tiotropium bromide is a bronchodilator used to manage asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). While it is not commonly associated with increasing blood pressure, the PN should still be aware of any potential side effects and monitor the client's blood pressure.
Choice C reason: Ethinyl estradiol/norethindrone is a combination oral contraceptive that contains estrogen and progestin. Estrogen can cause blood vessels to constrict, leading to an increase in blood pressure. The PN should educate the client about this potential side effect and monitor their blood pressure regularly.
Choice D reason: Pseudoephedrine is a decongestant that can cause vasoconstriction and increase blood pressure. It is important for the PN to inform the client about this potential side effect and monitor their blood pressure closely.
Choice E reason: Albuterol sulfate is a bronchodilator used to relieve asthma symptoms. While it can cause some cardiovascular side effects, such as increased heart rate, it is not typically associated with a significant increase in blood pressure. The PN should still monitor the client's blood pressure and be aware of any potential side effects.
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