A client is receiving diazepam IV, a benzodiazepine anticonvulsant, for status epilepticus. Which intervention is most important for the practical nurse (PN) to implement?

Record hourly blood pressures for the next 4 hours

Measure hourly urinary output for the next 8 hours

Monitor the client’s respiratory rate and effort

Observe the client’s eyes for deviation to the side

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A reason: Recording blood pressures is relevant, as diazepam may cause hypotension, but it is less critical than respiratory monitoring. Status epilepticus requires rapid seizure control, and diazepam’s respiratory depression risk is more immediate, as it can lead to life-threatening hypoxia if not addressed promptly.

Choice B reason: Measuring urinary output monitors renal function but is not urgent in status epilepticus. Diazepam’s primary risk is respiratory depression, not renal effects. Ensuring airway and breathing stability is more critical, as seizures and the drug both threaten respiratory function, making this choice secondary.

Choice C reason: Monitoring respiratory rate and effort is critical, as diazepam, a CNS depressant, can cause respiratory depression, especially in status epilepticus, where seizures already compromise breathing. Hypoventilation risks hypoxia, potentially leading to brain damage or death, making this the most urgent intervention to ensure airway safety.

Choice D reason: Observing eye deviation may indicate ongoing seizures but is less urgent than respiratory monitoring. Diazepam controls seizures, but its side effect of respiratory depression poses an immediate threat. Ensuring adequate ventilation is the priority to prevent hypoxia during acute seizure management.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: Gum appearance is unrelated to carbamazepine’s side effects or sore throat. While some antiseizure drugs cause gingival hyperplasia, carbamazepine does not, and gum assessment does not clarify the sore throat’s cause, which may indicate infection or agranulocytosis, making this choice irrelevant.

Choice B reason: Bowel sounds assess gastrointestinal function, not relevant to a sore throat or carbamazepine’s effects. Sore throat may signal agranulocytosis, a rare side effect, but bowel sounds do not provide data on infection or hematologic issues, making this choice inappropriate.

Choice C reason: Carotid pulse volume evaluates cardiovascular status but is unrelated to sore throat or carbamazepine’s side effects. Sore throat may indicate infection or agranulocytosis, requiring systemic assessment like temperature, not vascular checks, making this choice irrelevant for the reported symptom.

Choice D reason: Temperature is critical, as sore throat may indicate infection or agranulocytosis, a rare but serious carbamazepine side effect causing low white blood cells. Fever suggests infection, necessitating urgent reporting. This assessment provides key data to differentiate causes, guiding timely intervention.

A. Confer with the charge nurse about the need to administer the medication B. Advise the client to call the PN for symptoms of increasing blood pressure C. Withhold the medication and recheck the client’s blood pressure in one hour D. Administer the scheduled dose of the antihypertensive medication

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: Conferring with the charge nurse is unnecessary, as a blood pressure of 120/72 mm Hg is within normal range for a client on maintenance antihypertensive therapy. Maintenance doses prevent hypertension recurrence, and this reading does not indicate a need to alter the schedule.

Choice B reason: Advising the client to report rising blood pressure symptoms is general education, not an action addressing the current situation. The blood pressure is normal, and the maintenance dose is indicated to sustain control, making this choice irrelevant for immediate action.

Choice C reason: Withholding the medication and rechecking in an hour risks blood pressure spikes, as maintenance therapy prevents hypertension. A normal reading of 120/72 mm Hg indicates effective control, and stopping the dose could destabilize the client’s condition, making this choice inappropriate.

Choice D reason: Administering the scheduled antihypertensive dose is correct, as 120/72 mm Hg indicates effective blood pressure control. Maintenance therapy sustains normotension by regulating vascular tone or fluid balance, preventing hypertensive episodes, ensuring cardiovascular stability, and aligning with the prescription’s intent.

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A client is receiving diazepam IV, a benzodiazepine anticonvulsant, for status epilepticus. Which intervention is most important for the practical nurse (PN) to implement?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The practical nurse assesses a client who is receiving carbamazepine for a seizure disorder. The client reports the onset of a sore throat. Which additional assessment data should the PN obtain before reporting to the charge nurse?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The practical nurse (PN) is preparing to administer a maintenance dose of an antihypertensive medication to an adult client and notes that the client’s blood pressure is 120/72 mm Hg. Which action should the PN take?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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