A client presents to a clinic reporting of a leg ulcer that isn't healing; subsequent diagnostic testing suggests osteomyelitis. The nurse is aware that the most common pathogen to cause osteomyelitis is what?
Escherichia coli
Pseudomonas
Proteus
Staphylococcus aureus
The Correct Answer is D
Osteomyelitis is an infection of the bone and marrow that typically occurs through hematogenous seeding or direct inoculation from an adjacent soft tissue ulcer. The structure of bone, with its microscopic channels, provides a sanctuary for bacteria to proliferate while remaining shielded from the immune system. The resulting inflammatory response causes increased intraosseous pressure, leading to bone necrosis and the formation of a sequestrum.
A. Escherichia coli: While this gram-negative bacillus can cause bone infections, it is typically associated with urinary tract sources or vertebral osteomyelitis in older adults. It is not the primary pathogen isolated from the majority of peripheral bone infections. Its presence usually suggests a secondary infection rather than the primary etiologic agent of a leg ulcer.
B. Pseudomonas: This opportunistic organism is frequently found in "puncture wound" osteomyelitis, particularly those involving the foot and rubber-soled shoes. It is known for its high resistance to multiple antibiotic classes and its ability to form protective biofilms. However, it remains less prevalent than the leading gram-positive cocci in general clinical cases.
C. Proteus: Members of the Proteus genus are occasionally isolated from polymicrobial infections, especially in chronic wounds with extensive tissue decay. They are known for their urease production, which can alter the local pH of the wound environment. Despite this, they are considered uncommon primary pathogens in the initial development of bone infection.
D. Staphylococcus aureus: This organism is the most frequent cause of osteomyelitis across all age groups due to its potent adhesion molecules that bind to bone matrix proteins. It possesses various virulence factors that allow it to invade bone cells and persist in a dormant state. It is isolated in up to 80% of cases involving direct bone contamination from skin ulcers.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Muscle mass is maintained through a constant cycle of protein synthesis and degradation, which is heavily dependent on mechanical tension and neuromuscular stimulation. Chronic immobilization or upper motor neuron lesions, such as those occurring in a stroke, lead to the loss of myofibrillar proteins. This results in a visible and measurable reduction in muscle diameter, representing a transition from functional tissue to a hypotrophic state.
A. edema in left lower extremity: Edema involves the accumulation of fluid in the interstitial space, which would cause an increase in the girth of the affected limb. If the left calf were edematous, it would appear swollen and potentially demonstrate pitting upon pressure. The question specifies a decrease in the right calf, making tissue wasting on the paralyzed side the more plausible physiological explanation.
B. atrophy of right calf muscle: Disuse atrophy occurs when a muscle is no longer subjected to the contractile demands of voluntary movement or weight-bearing. In the case of hemiplegia, the lack of neural signals to the right calf prevents the maintenance of muscle bulk. This pathophysiological regression is a common long-term complication of stroke and prolonged physical inactivity.
C. increased use of left calf muscle: While the client may rely more heavily on the non-paralyzed left side for mobility, this would lead to hypertrophy rather than a relative deficit. Muscle enlargement on the left does not explain the significant 2-inch loss of volume on the right side. The primary clinical concern in hemiplegia is the catabolic loss of tissue on the affected side.
D. bruising in right lower extremity: Bruising, or ecchymosis, involves the extravasation of blood and typically causes localized inflammatory swelling rather than a reduction in girth. A bruise would not result in a symmetrical 2-inch decrease in the circumference of the calf muscle. Atrophy is a chronic structural change, whereas bruising is an acute, superficial vascular event.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Effective nursing care during a crisis requires balancing clinical urgency with empathetic, therapeutic communication. Therapeutic communication utilizes active listening and validation of feelings to reduce parental anxiety, which is essential for future education and adherence. The nurse must address the immediate medical need of the patient while providing a concrete commitment to the caregiver's psychological support.
A. "If you'll wait in your son's room, the physician will talk with you as soon as he's free.": This response abdicates the nursing responsibility for emotional support and defers it to another provider. It may increase the mother's anxiety by implying that only the physician can address her concerns about the new diagnosis. This dismissive approach fails to establish a supportive nurse-client relationship during a highly vulnerable moment.
B. "Everything will be just fine. I'll be back in a minute and then we can talk.": Providing false reassurance is a non-therapeutic communication technique that minimizes the mother's legitimate concerns and fears. It ignores the emotional gravity of a chronic illness diagnosis and provides no factual basis for comfort. This can damage the nurse's credibility and block further open communication from the parent.
C. "I can't talk now. I have to give your son his insulin as soon as possible.": While technically accurate regarding the priority of medication, this statement is blunt and lacks empathy for the mother’s distress. It creates a perceived barrier between the nurse and the family, making the mother feel like an interruption rather than a partner in care. This approach hinders the holistic care required in pediatric nursing.
D. "I'm going to give your son some insulin. Then I'll be happy to talk with you.": This response correctly prioritizes the patient's physiological needs while explicitly acknowledging and validating the mother’s request for communication. It provides a clear timeframe for when the nurse will be available, which helps reduce the mother's uncertainty. This fosters trust and ensures both clinical and emotional priorities are met.
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