A client presents to the emergency department reporting chest pain.
Which order should the nurse complete first?
Obtain Troponin level.
Aspirin 325 mg orally.
Monitor intake and output.
12-lead ECG.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
Troponin is a specific biomarker released during myocardial cell necrosis, typically peaking between 12 to 24 hours after injury. The normal range for Troponin T is less than 0.01 ng/mL. While essential for diagnosing an infarction, it is a laboratory value that requires time for processing. It does not provide the immediate diagnostic visualization needed to distinguish between ST-elevation myocardial infarction and non-ischemic causes of chest pain in the first minutes of care.
Choice B rationale
Aspirin acts as an antiplatelet agent by irreversibly inhibiting cyclooxygenase-1, which prevents the synthesis of thromboxane A2. This action inhibits platelet aggregation and reduces the risk of further thrombus formation in the coronary arteries. While administration is a high priority in the acute coronary syndrome protocol, the nurse must first establish the underlying cardiac rhythm and electrical status via an electrocardiogram to guide the overall speed and type of medical intervention required.
Choice C rationale
Monitoring intake and output is a standard nursing intervention used to evaluate fluid balance and renal perfusion, which can be compromised in heart failure or cardiogenic shock. However, in the hyperacute phase of chest pain, this task is not a life-saving or diagnostic priority. Measuring urine output or fluid intake does not address the immediate need to identify coronary ischemia or prevent further myocardial damage during the initial emergency department assessment.
Choice D rationale
A 12-lead ECG is the gold standard for immediate assessment of chest pain because it identifies myocardial ischemia or injury within seconds. It allows the clinical team to recognize ST-segment elevation, which necessitates rapid reperfusion therapy like fibrinolysis or percutaneous coronary intervention. According to standard emergency protocols, an ECG should be performed and interpreted within 10 minutes of arrival to minimize the door-to-balloon time and preserve viable myocardial tissue from irreversible necrosis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Transcutaneous pacing is the immediate treatment of choice for symptomatic sinus bradycardia that does not respond to atropine. This non-invasive method delivers electrical impulses through large electrode pads placed on the chest and back to stimulate ventricular contraction. It serves as a crucial bridge until more definitive treatments, like a transvenous or permanent pacemaker, can be established. It is rapid to initiate and effective in maintaining an adequate heart rate and cardiac output.
Choice B rationale
An implanted or permanent pacemaker is a long-term solution for chronic or irreversible bradycardia, but it is not the immediate treatment for an acute, sudden-onset event in an unstable patient. The placement of a permanent device requires a surgical procedure and time for preparation. In an emergency where a patient is not responding to atropine, a faster, temporary method like transcutaneous pacing must be used first to stabilize the patient before considering a permanent implant.
Choice C rationale
An asynchronous defibrillator is used to deliver high-energy shocks to treat pulseless rhythms like ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia. It is not used for bradycardia, as the heart still has organized, albeit slow, electrical activity. Applying an unsynchronized shock to a patient with a pulse could induce a more dangerous rhythm, such as ventricular fibrillation, by hitting the T wave. Defibrillation is entirely inappropriate for a slow heart rate with a pulse.
Choice D rationale
Synchronized cardioversion is used to treat unstable tachydysrhythmias, such as supraventricular tachycardia or atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular response. The goal is to slow down or reset a fast heart rate. Using cardioversion on a patient with sinus bradycardia would be counterproductive and dangerous, as the patient's heart rate is already too slow. This intervention is designed to interrupt fast circuits, not to provide the regular stimulus needed to increase a slow rate.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Teaching the patient about fluid restriction is a critical component of long-term chronic disease management for heart failure to prevent future exacerbations. However, education is a lower priority during an acute phase of fluid volume excess. When a patient presents with physical symptoms like a significant 3-pound weight gain and peripheral edema, the nurse must prioritize physiological stabilization and pharmacological intervention over teaching, as the patient may be too distressed to effectively learn or retain information.
Choice B rationale
A thorough respiratory assessment is vital to check for pulmonary edema, often manifested by crackles or decreased oxygen saturation, which frequently accompanies right-sided heart failure progression. While assessment is a key nursing step, the symptoms provided already confirm significant systemic fluid overload. After identifying the problem through these initial findings, the nurse should move to the intervention that will directly resolve the fluid excess and prevent the patient from progressing into acute respiratory distress or failure.
Choice C rationale
Encouraging sodium restriction is a necessary dietary modification because sodium promotes water retention through osmotic pressure, worsening the workload on a failing heart. Like fluid restriction education, this is a secondary prevention strategy meant for long-term maintenance. In the presence of acute jugular vein distention and rapid weight gain, dietary changes will not work fast enough to relieve the current pressure on the cardiovascular system or reduce the extracellular fluid volume effectively.
Choice D rationale
Administering a prescribed diuretic, such as furosemide, is the priority because it directly addresses the fluid volume excess by promoting the excretion of sodium and water by the kidneys. This pharmacological intervention reduces the preload and systemic venous pressure, thereby alleviating the jugular vein distention and ankle edema. Rapid diuresis is necessary to prevent the fluid from backing up further into the pulmonary circulation, which could lead to life-threatening pulmonary edema and impaired gas exchange.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
