A client weighing 198 lbs is prescribed Dopamine hydrochloride IV at 2 mcg/kg/minute to promote renal perfusion.
The pharmacy provides a pre-mixed bag of dopamine containing 400 mg in 250 mL dextrose 5% in water (D5W). An IV pump that provides a precision infusion rate to a tenth of a mL is available.
How many mL/hour should the IV pump be set to deliver? (Enter numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest tenth.)
The Correct Answer is ["6.8"]
Step 1: Convert the client’s weight from lbs to kg. 1 kg is approximately 2.2 lbs. So, 198 lbs ÷
2.2 = 90 kg (rounded to the nearest whole number).
Step 2: Calculate the total mcg of Dopamine needed per minute. The prescription is for 2 mcg/kg/minute. So, 90 kg × 2 mcg/kg/minute = 180 mcg/minute.
Step 3: Convert the total mcg of Dopamine in the bag to mcg/mL. The bag contains 400 mg of Dopamine in 250 mL. 1 mg is equal to 1000 mcg. So, 400 mg × 1000 = 400,000 mcg. Therefore, the concentration is 400,000 mcg ÷ 250 mL = 1600 mcg/mL.
Step 4: Calculate the mL of Dopamine needed per minute. So, 180 mcg/minute ÷ 1600 mcg/mL
= 0.1125 mL/minute.
Step 5: Convert mL/minute to mL/hour. There are 60 minutes in an hour. So, 0.1125 mL/minute × 60 = 6.75 mL/hour. The IV pump should be set to deliver 6.8 mL/hour (rounded to the nearest tenth).
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While obtaining a serum drug screen might be helpful in confirming the presence of benzodiazepines or other substances, it is not the most immediate concern in a client experiencing severe agitation and tremors due to withdrawal.
Choice B rationale
Naloxone is an opioid antagonist and would not be effective in managing withdrawal symptoms from benzodiazepines.
Choice C rationale
Seizure precautions should be initiated as withdrawal from benzodiazepines can lead to severe withdrawal symptoms, including seizures. Therefore, ensuring the safety of the client by initiating seizure precautions is the best initial nursing action.
Choice D rationale
While education is an important part of nursing care, in this situation, the client’s immediate physical needs take precedence.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While taking the blood pressure in the other arm might avoid the spasms, it does not address the underlying cause of the spasms. Therefore, this is not the best action for the nurse to take.
Choice B rationale
Using a different sphygmomanometer would not necessarily prevent the spasms from occurring. The spasms are likely not caused by the equipment itself, but rather a physiological issue within the client.
Choice C rationale
The spasms in the client’s hand and fingers could be a sign of hypocalcemia, a condition where there is not enough calcium in the blood. One of the symptoms of hypocalcemia is muscle spasms or tetany. Therefore, reviewing the client’s serum calcium level would be an appropriate action to take.
Choice D rationale
Administering a PRN antianxiety medication would not address the underlying cause of the spasms. While anxiety can cause muscle tension and spasms, there is no indication in the scenario that anxiety is the cause of this client’s symptoms.
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