A client who following prescribed multiple medications for recurring urinary tract infections tells the nurse that her urine has turned red-orange. Which of the following prescribed medications does the nurse suspect is responsible for this change?
Nitrofurantoin (Macrobid)
Sulfamethoxzole-trimethoprim (SMX TMP) Bactrim)
This is expected with a UTI not related to medications.
Phenazopryidine (Pyridium)
The Correct Answer is D
A) Nitrofurantoin (Macrobid): While nitrofurantoin is commonly prescribed for urinary tract infections (UTIs), it does not typically cause a red-orange discoloration of the urine. Nitrofurantoin may cause other side effects, such as gastrointestinal upset or pulmonary issues, but urine discoloration is not a common or expected side effect.
B) Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim (SMX TMP, Bactrim): Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim is another common medication for UTIs, but it does not cause urine to turn red-orange. Some individuals may experience allergic reactions, rash, or gastrointestinal side effects, but urine discoloration is not typically associated with this medication.
C) This is expected with a UTI not related to medications: While it’s true that UTIs can cause changes in urine color due to blood or infection, the red-orange discoloration specifically linked to a UTI is often caused by medications, not the infection itself. Therefore, this statement is not accurate in explaining the cause of the urine color change.
D) Phenazopyridine (Pyridium): This is the correct answer. Phenazopyridine is a medication commonly used to alleviate urinary tract pain and discomfort. One of its well-known side effects is causing urine to turn a red-orange color. This discoloration is harmless and typically resolves once the medication is discontinued. However, patients should be informed about this effect to avoid unnecessary concern.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Having the patient splint their incision site when coughing and deep breathing:
While splinting the incision site can help alleviate pain and prevent strain on the surgical wound during coughing and deep breathing, it is not a primary intervention for preventing surgical site infection. Infection prevention is more directly related to sterile technique, antibiotic prophylaxis, and maintaining a clean environment around the wound. Splinting can support postoperative recovery, but it does not directly prevent infection.
B. Offering around the clock pain medication in the immediate post-operative phase:
Providing pain medication is important for patient comfort and to facilitate early mobilization after surgery. However, pain management does not directly prevent surgical site infections. The focus for infection prevention lies in maintaining sterility, administering antibiotics as prescribed, and appropriate wound care rather than pain control alone.
C. Administering prescribed pre-operative antibiotics within 30-60 minutes of surgery:
The administration of prophylactic antibiotics before surgery, typically within 30-60 minutes of the incision, is a primary intervention for preventing surgical site infections (SSIs). This timing ensures that the antibiotics are at therapeutic levels in the bloodstream when the surgical procedure begins, reducing the risk of introducing bacteria into the surgical site. This is a well-established guideline for infection prevention in surgical settings.
D. Performing the first dressing change on a new surgical site in the postoperative setting:
The first dressing change should generally be done by a healthcare professional using sterile technique. However, the timing and handling of the first dressing change are more related to wound care practices rather than a primary strategy for preventing infection. Infection prevention primarily involves proper antibiotic prophylaxis, maintaining a sterile field, and managing the surgical site during the early post-operative period. The first dressing change, while important for wound healing, is not the most immediate or primary intervention for preventing surgical site infection.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Respiratory acidosis:
Respiratory acidosis is characterized by an increased CO2 level (above 45 mmHg) due to hypoventilation or impaired gas exchange, leading to a decrease in pH (below 7.35). In this case, the CO2 level is 25 mmHg, which is lower than normal and suggests a loss of CO2, not an accumulation. Therefore, respiratory acidosis is not the correct interpretation of these ABG results.
B. Metabolic acidosis:
Metabolic acidosis occurs when the pH drops below 7.35 due to conditions like kidney failure, diarrhea, or diabetic ketoacidosis. This would typically be accompanied by a low bicarbonate (HCO3-) level (less than 22 mEq/L). However, in this case, the pH is 7.52 (alkalotic), and the HCO3- level is 24 mEq/L, which is within the normal range. Thus, metabolic acidosis is not the correct interpretation.
C. Respiratory alkalosis:
Respiratory alkalosis is characterized by a decrease in CO2 (less than 35 mmHg) due to hyperventilation, which causes an increase in pH (above 7.45). In this case, the pH is 7.52 (alkalotic), and the CO2 is 25 mmHg, which is lower than the normal range (35–45 mmHg). The bicarbonate (HCO3-) level is 24 mEq/L, which is normal and compensatory. This matches the pattern of respiratory alkalosis, where the body compensates with a normal bicarbonate level as CO2 decreases.
D. Metabolic alkalosis:
Metabolic alkalosis occurs when the pH rises above 7.45, often due to excessive vomiting, diuretic use, or antacid overuse, leading to an increase in bicarbonate (HCO3-) levels. While the pH is 7.52, indicating alkalosis, the bicarbonate (HCO3-) level is 24 mEq/L, which is within the normal range for bicarbonate. In metabolic alkalosis, you would typically see an elevated HCO3- level, which is not the case here. Therefore, metabolic alkalosis is not the correct interpretation of these ABG results.
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