A client who is in the third trimester of pregnancy has been experiencing an exacerbation of iron-deficiency anemia in recent weeks. When providing the client with nutritional guidelines and meal suggestions, what foods would be most likely to increase the client’s iron stores?
Beef liver accompanied by orange juice
Yogurt, almonds, and whole grain oats
Salmon accompanied by whole milk
Mixed vegetables and brown rice
The Correct Answer is A
Reasoning:
Choice A reason: Beef liver is rich in heme iron, highly bioavailable for hemoglobin synthesis, and orange juice provides vitamin C, enhancing non-heme iron absorption. This combination maximizes iron uptake, critical for correcting iron deficiency anemia in pregnancy, where iron demands increase due to fetal growth and maternal blood volume expansion.
Choice B reason: Yogurt, almonds, and oats contain non-heme iron, but their bioavailability is lower than heme iron from meat. Calcium in yogurt may inhibit iron absorption, and while nutritious, this combination is less effective for rapidly increasing iron stores in iron deficiency anemia during pregnancy.
Choice C reason: Salmon and whole milk provide protein and calcium but are poor sources of iron. Salmon has minimal iron, and milk’s calcium can inhibit iron absorption. This combination does not effectively address the increased iron needs of pregnancy-related iron deficiency anemia, making it less suitable.
Choice D reason: Mixed vegetables and brown rice contain non-heme iron, but absorption is limited compared to heme iron sources. Without vitamin C to enhance uptake, this combination is less effective for correcting iron deficiency anemia in pregnancy, where rapid restoration of iron stores is critical.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Reasoning:
Choice A reason: Thiazide diuretics reduce urine output in nephrogenic diabetes insipidus by increasing sodium excretion, which enhances water reabsorption indirectly. However, they are not the primary treatment for central diabetes insipidus, where ADH deficiency is the issue. Desmopressin, an ADH analog, directly addresses the hormonal deficiency, making thiazides less effective.
Choice B reason: Diabinese (chlorpropamide) is a sulfonylurea used for type 2 diabetes mellitus, not diabetes insipidus. It lowers blood glucose by stimulating insulin release, which is irrelevant to the water balance issue in diabetes insipidus caused by ADH deficiency. It does not address the underlying hormonal imbalance.
Choice C reason: Desmopressin (DDAVP) is a synthetic ADH analog used to treat central diabetes insipidus. It mimics ADH, promoting water reabsorption in the kidneys’ collecting ducts, reducing polyuria and thirst. This directly corrects the fluid imbalance caused by ADH deficiency, making it the primary and most effective treatment.
Choice D reason: Ibuprofen, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug, is used for pain and inflammation, not for fluid balance in diabetes insipidus. It has no effect on ADH or renal water reabsorption, making it irrelevant for treating the excessive urine output and dehydration associated with this condition.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Reasoning:
Choice A reason: A hemoglobin level of 15 g/dL is within the normal range and not consistent with aplastic anemia, which causes pancytopenia, including low hemoglobin due to bone marrow failure. Normal hemoglobin suggests adequate red blood cell production, ruling out aplastic anemia as the primary diagnosis.
Choice B reason: A platelet level of 275,000/mm3 is normal and does not support aplastic anemia, which involves bone marrow failure, leading to thrombocytopenia (low platelets). Normal platelet counts indicate intact megakaryocyte function, inconsistent with the pancytopenia characteristic of aplastic anemia’s bone marrow suppression.
Choice C reason: A white blood cell count of 1100 cells/mm3 indicates leukopenia, a hallmark of aplastic anemia. Bone marrow failure reduces production of all blood cell lines, including leukocytes, leading to low white cell counts, increasing infection risk, and supporting the diagnosis of aplastic anemia in this context.
Choice D reason: An erythrocyte count of 5.1 cells/mL is normal and not indicative of aplastic anemia, which causes anemia through reduced red blood cell production. Normal erythrocyte counts suggest preserved erythropoiesis, which is inconsistent with the pancytopenia expected in aplastic anemia’s bone marrow failure.
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