A client who is receiving radiation treatment for laryngeal cancer has developed xerostomia and mucositis.
The nurse determines the client has an imbalanced nutritional intake and is consuming less than body requirements.
Which factor is the most likely cause for this problem?
Nausea.
Fatigue.
Pain when eating.
Altered taste sensation.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
Nausea can be a significant factor contributing to decreased food intake, but it is not the most likely cause in this scenario. Xerostomia (dry mouth) and mucositis are mentioned as symptoms in the question stem. Nausea alone does not explain why the client is consuming less than their body requirements.
Choice B rationale:
Fatigue can also contribute to decreased food intake, but it is not the most likely cause in this case. While fatigue can be a side effect of cancer treatment and may lead to reduced appetite, the question specifically mentions xerostomia and mucositis as issues contributing to imbalanced nutritional intake.
Choice C rationale:
Pain when eating is the most likely cause of imbalanced nutritional intake in this scenario. The client's laryngeal cancer and the development of mucositis indicate that eating is likely painful for them. This discomfort can significantly deter the client from eating, leading to decreased nutritional intake.
Choice D rationale:
Altered taste sensation can affect food preferences, but it is not the most likely cause in this case. Pain when eating is a more direct and immediate barrier to food intake, especially in the context of mucositis and laryngeal cancer.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is Choice C
Choice A rationale: This question prematurely assumes the client is experiencing command hallucinations, which are auditory hallucinations instructing the individual to perform specific actions, often dangerous. Scientifically, this bypasses the essential diagnostic step of characterizing the hallucination type. Without understanding onset, frequency, and context, asking about obedience risks escalating paranoia or defensiveness. Psychiatric assessment requires chronological and phenomenological data before evaluating risk. Prematurely probing intent may compromise rapport and hinder accurate clinical evaluation.
Choice B rationale: While substance-induced psychosis is a differential diagnosis, asking about hallucinogen use before establishing the nature and onset of symptoms may be perceived as accusatory. Scientifically, the DSM-5 criteria for substance-induced psychotic disorder require temporal correlation between substance use and symptom onset. Without knowing when the voices began, this question lacks diagnostic precision. A thorough psychiatric history must precede substance screening to avoid bias and ensure accurate etiological classification of hallucinations.
Choice C rationale: Establishing the onset of auditory hallucinations is foundational in psychiatric assessment. Scientifically, the timeline helps differentiate between transient, substance-induced, and chronic psychotic disorders such as schizophrenia. Early onset may suggest prodromal schizophrenia, while abrupt onset could indicate delirium or drug-induced psychosis. Understanding duration also informs risk stratification and treatment planning. This question respects clinical sequencing, allowing the nurse to gather essential data before exploring content, belief, or behavioral response to hallucinations.
Choice D rationale: Exploring the client’s belief about the reality of voices is part of assessing insight, but it should follow initial characterization of the hallucinations. Scientifically, insight evaluation helps determine the severity of psychosis and guides treatment adherence predictions. However, asking this prematurely may confuse or distress the client. Insight is typically assessed after establishing symptom chronology, frequency, and impact. Premature probing of belief risks misinterpretation and may hinder therapeutic engagement in early assessment stages.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Impaired physical mobility relative to muscle rigidity has the highest priority in the nursing care plan for a client diagnosed with Parkinson's disease. Parkinson's disease is characterized by motor symptoms such as muscle rigidity, bradykinesia, and postural instability. Impaired physical mobility can significantly impact a patient's ability to perform activities of daily living and maintain independence. Addressing this issue is crucial to enhance the patient's quality of life and prevent complications such as falls.
Choice B rationale:
While the risk for aspiration relative to muscle weakness is a valid concern in Parkinson's disease, impaired physical mobility takes precedence as it directly affects the patient's ability to move, ambulate, and perform daily activities. Addressing mobility issues is fundamental to maintaining overall functioning and independence.
Choice C rationale:
The risk for constipation relative to immobility is important to address, but it is not the highest priority. Impaired physical mobility can lead to multiple complications, including constipation. However, improving mobility should be the primary focus to prevent a wide range of issues associated with Parkinson's disease.
Choice D rationale:
Self-care deficit relative to motor disturbance is a concern in Parkinson's disease, but it is not the highest priority. Impaired physical mobility directly impacts a patient's ability to engage in self-care activities. By addressing mobility issues first, the nurse can facilitate the patient's ability to perform self-care tasks more independently in the long run.
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