A client with a history of ovarian cysts is seen by the primary health care provider (PHCP).
The client has had 2 previous surgeries related to this condition. Her PHCP recommends an exploratory laparoscopic procedure for the current ovarian cyst, which has persisted for several months. The client states that the prior ovarian cysts were benign and questions the need for this procedure. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
"With your recurrent history, one of these times the cyst will be malignant."
"I appreciate your concern regarding another surgical procedure. Would you like to discuss your concerns?"
"The surgical procedure is minimal, and you will not have to be concerned after you learn the results."
"A prolonged ovarian abnormality should be evaluated thoroughly."
The Correct Answer is B
A. "With your recurrent history, one of these times the cyst will be malignant.": This response is not appropriate as it may cause unnecessary fear and is not supportive or informative.
B. "I appreciate your concern regarding another surgical procedure. Would you like to discuss your concerns?": This response validates the client's feelings and opens a dialogue for further discussion, allowing the client to express her concerns and receive appropriate information and support.
C. "The surgical procedure is minimal, and you will not have to be concerned after you learn the results.": This response dismisses the client's concerns and does not provide an opportunity for discussion.
D. "A prolonged ovarian abnormality should be evaluated thoroughly.": While this statement is true, it does not address the client's immediate concerns and does not encourage an open
discussion.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Syphilis can indeed affect many areas of the body, including the brain and heart, but this statement does not specifically address primary syphilis, which is characterized by the appearance of a painless sore (chancre) at the site of infection.
B. Syphilis does not typically resolve on its own. Without treatment, the infection can progress to more severe stages with potentially serious complications.
C. Syphilis is caused by a bacterial infection (Treponema pallidum) and is treated with antibiotics such as penicillin. Antiviral medications are not effective against bacterial infections like syphilis.
D. This statement is accurate and important for the prevention of syphilis transmission. Syphilis can be transmitted through vaginal, anal, or oral sex, but the risk of transmission is lower during oral sex compared to vaginal or anal intercourse.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. "Dietary supplements have not been tested and approved by the government." While this statement may be true, it is not directly related to the potential interaction between dietary supplements and nitroglycerin.
B. "Dietary supplements may be expensive and are not typically covered by insurance." While cost considerations are important, they are not directly related to the potential interaction
between dietary supplements and nitroglycerin.
C. "There is not enough evidence that dietary supplements are effective for erectile dysfunction."
While this statement may be true, it is not directly related to the potential interaction between dietary supplements and nitroglycerin.
D. "Dietary supplements can cause a drug-drug interaction with nitrates." Nitroglycerin is a medication commonly used for angina, and it interacts with erectile dysfunction medications
such as sildenafil (Viagra) due to its vasodilatory effects, potentially causing severe hypotension.
Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to educate the client about the risk of interactions between dietary supplements and nitroglycerin.
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