A client with a history of ovarian cysts is seen by the primary health care provider (PHCP).
The client has had 2 previous surgeries related to this condition. Her PHCP recommends an exploratory laparoscopic procedure for the current ovarian cyst, which has persisted for several months. The client states that the prior ovarian cysts were benign and questions the need for this procedure. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
"With your recurrent history, one of these times the cyst will be malignant."
"I appreciate your concern regarding another surgical procedure. Would you like to discuss your concerns?"
"The surgical procedure is minimal, and you will not have to be concerned after you learn the results."
"A prolonged ovarian abnormality should be evaluated thoroughly."
The Correct Answer is B
A. "With your recurrent history, one of these times the cyst will be malignant.": This response is not appropriate as it may cause unnecessary fear and is not supportive or informative.
B. "I appreciate your concern regarding another surgical procedure. Would you like to discuss your concerns?": This response validates the client's feelings and opens a dialogue for further discussion, allowing the client to express her concerns and receive appropriate information and support.
C. "The surgical procedure is minimal, and you will not have to be concerned after you learn the results.": This response dismisses the client's concerns and does not provide an opportunity for discussion.
D. "A prolonged ovarian abnormality should be evaluated thoroughly.": While this statement is true, it does not address the client's immediate concerns and does not encourage an open
discussion.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Raloxifene hydrochloride is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) that is used for the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. It helps to prevent bone loss and reduce the risk of fractures by acting similarly to estrogen in some tissues and antagonizing estrogen in others.
B. Levothyroxine is a thyroid hormone replacement medication used to treat hypothyroidism, not osteoporosis.
C. Escitalopram oxalate is an antidepressant medication used to treat depression and anxiety disorders, not osteoporosis.
D. Calcitonin is a hormone involved in calcium regulation, and calcitonin nasal spray is sometimes used in the treatment of osteoporosis, but it is not typically the first-line treatment option.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. The activity of the bone marrow is depressed. Aplastic anemia is a condition where the bone marrow fails to produce sufficient numbers of blood cells, including red cells, white cells, and platelets.
B. Red cells are absent as a result of chronic blood loss. This describes a condition like iron- deficiency anemia, not aplastic anemia.
C. The bone marrow fails to produce lymphocytes. Aplastic anemia affects the production of all blood cells, not just lymphocytes.
D. The kidneys fail to produce red blood cells. This describes anemia of chronic kidney disease, not aplastic anemia. In aplastic anemia, the problem lies with the bone marrow, not the kidneys.
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