A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving calcium acetate 667 mg PO. A decrease in which blood value indicates to the nurse that the medication is having the desired effect?
Potassium.
Calcium.
Phosphate.
pH.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason:
Calcium acetate is not used to lower potassium levels. Potassium levels in the blood are typically managed through dietary restrictions, medications like potassium binders, and dialysis in patients with CKD. The normal range for blood potassium levels is 3.5 to 5.2 mEq/L for adults.
Choice B reason:
Calcium acetate can increase calcium levels in the blood, not decrease them. It is important to monitor calcium levels to avoid hypercalcemia, which can lead to complications such as vascular calcification and cardiac issues. The normal range for blood calcium levels is 8.6 to 10.2 mg/dL.
Choice C reason:
Calcium acetate is used to lower phosphate levels in patients with CKD. It works by binding to dietary phosphate in the intestines, forming insoluble calcium phosphate that is excreted in the stool. This helps prevent hyperphosphatemia, a common issue in CKD patients. The normal range for blood phosphate levels is 2.5 to 4.5 mg/dL.
Choice D reason:
Calcium acetate does not directly affect blood pH levels. Blood pH is regulated by the kidneys and lungs, and the normal range is 7.35 to 7.45. While CKD can affect acid-base balance, calcium acetate’s primary role is to manage phosphate levels.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Use a straw to ingest: Ferrous sulfate elixir can cause staining of the teeth. Using a straw helps to minimize contact with the teeth, thereby reducing the risk of staining. This method ensures that the medication is ingested directly into the throat, bypassing the teeth.
Choice B Reason:
Swallow undiluted: Swallowing ferrous sulfate elixir undiluted is not recommended because it can cause gastrointestinal irritation. Diluting the elixir in water or juice can help to minimize this irritation and improve absorption.
Choice C Reason:
Mix with an antacid: Mixing ferrous sulfate with an antacid is not advisable because antacids can interfere with the absorption of iron. Iron is best absorbed in an acidic environment, and antacids neutralize stomach acid, thereby reducing iron absorption.
Choice D Reason:
Take with a glass of milk: Taking ferrous sulfate with milk is not recommended because calcium in milk can inhibit the absorption of iron. It is best to take iron supplements on an empty stomach or with a source of vitamin C, such as orange juice, to enhance absorption
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Contact the healthcare provider: Given the client’s history of anaphylactic reaction to penicillin, there is a potential risk of cross-reactivity with cephalexin, a cephalosporin. Although the risk of cross-reactivity is relatively low, it is still significant enough to warrant caution. Studies indicate that 1-4% of people with a true penicillin allergy may also react to cephalosporins. Therefore, the nurse should contact the healthcare provider to discuss alternative antibiotics or additional precautions.
Choice B Reason:
Give with prescribed antihistamine: While antihistamines can help manage mild allergic reactions, they are not sufficient to prevent or treat anaphylaxis. Anaphylactic reactions require immediate medical intervention, including epinephrine administration. Therefore, relying solely on antihistamines is not an appropriate or safe action in this scenario.
Choice C Reason:
Administer the medication as prescribed: Administering cephalexin without consulting the healthcare provider could put the client at risk of a severe allergic reaction. Given the client’s history of anaphylaxis to penicillin, it is crucial to verify the safety of cephalexin with the healthcare provider before administration.
Choice D Reason:
Monitor the client for a rash or hives: While monitoring for allergic reactions is essential, it should not be the primary action in this case. The priority is to prevent a potential severe allergic reaction by consulting the healthcare provider before administering the medication. Monitoring alone does not address the underlying risk of cross-reactivity.
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