A client with chronic kidney disease receives a prescription for darbepoetin alfa 40 mcg subcutaneous every 7 days.
The darbepoetin alfa vial is labeled, "60 mcg/mL." How many mL should the nurse administer? round to the nearest tenth.
0.7 mL.
1.0 mL.
1.3 mL.
1.7 mL.
The Correct Answer is A
Step 1 is to determine the amount of darbepoetin alfa in each mL of solution. The vial is labeled as “60 mcg/mL”, which means each mL contains 60 mcg of darbepoetin alfa.
Step 2 is to calculate the volume of the solution that contains 40 mcg of darbepoetin alfa. This can be done by dividing the prescribed dosage by the concentration of the solution. So, the volume is 40 mcg ÷ 60 mcg/mL = 0.67 mL.
However, since we need to round to the nearest tenth, the volume becomes 0.7 mL.
So, the correct answer is, after analysing all choices, the nurse should administer 0.7 mL of the darbepoetin alfa solution.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Granulating tissue in a foot ulcer is a positive sign of wound healing, but it may not be directly related to the effectiveness of pregabalin in treating diabetic peripheral neuropathy. The primary goal of pregabalin in this context is to reduce pain and neuropathic symptoms.
Choice B rationale:
A reduced level of pain is the most relevant indicator of the effectiveness of pregabalin in treating diabetic peripheral neuropathy. Pregabalin is an antiepileptic medication used to manage neuropathic pain. A decrease in pain indicates that the medication is effectively managing the client's symptoms.
Choice C rationale:
Improved visual acuity is not directly related to the effectiveness of pregabalin in treating diabetic peripheral neuropathy. Pregabalin primarily targets neuropathic pain and sensory symptoms, not visual function.
Choice D rationale:
A full volume of pedal pulses is a positive sign of adequate circulation in the lower extremities, but it may not be directly related to the effectiveness of pregabalin in treating neuropathy symptoms. The primary goal of pregabalin in this context is pain management.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Emphasize that using safe sex practices removes the risk of STIs. Rationale: While promoting safe sex practices is essential in preventing STIs, this response is not directly addressing the client's situation. The client already reports having unprotected sex, so this choice does not provide relevant information or address the potential consequences.
Choice B rationale:
Explain that reinfections occur from sex with untreated partners. Rationale: This is the correct response. Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection that can be treated with antibiotics, but reinfections can occur if sexual partners are not treated. This response provides essential information about the potential consequences of unprotected sex with untreated partners.
Choice C rationale:
Clarify that all STIs are transmitted through sexual intercourse. Rationale: While this statement is accurate in a general sense, it does not specifically address the client's situation or the risks associated with syphilis. It lacks the focus needed to educate the client effectively about their current situation.
Choice D rationale:
Provide counseling that most contraceptives protect against infection. Rationale: This response is inaccurate. Contraceptives primarily aim to prevent pregnancy, not protect against STIs. Therefore, it does not address the client's concern or provide relevant information about syphilis.
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