A client with neuroleptic malignant syndrome receives a prescription for dantrolene 1.5 mg/kg IV. The client weighs 132 pounds.

The label on the 250 mg vial reads, “Reconstitute with 5 mL sterile water for injection, USP. Reconstitution yields 50 mg/mL.”. How many mL should the nurse administer?

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is ["1.8"]

The client weighs 132 pounds. To convert pounds to kilograms, divide the weight in pounds by

2.2. So, the client’s weight in kilograms is: Step 1: 132 pounds ÷ 2.2 = 60 kg The prescription for dantrolene is 1.5 mg/kg. To find out how many milligrams the client should receive, multiply the client’s weight in kilograms by the dosage in mg/kg: Step 2: 60 kg × 1.5 mg/kg = 90 mg The vial is reconstituted to yield a concentration of 50 mg/mL. To find out how many mL the nurse should administer, divide the total dosage in milligrams by the concentration in mg/mL: Step 3: 90 mg ÷ 50 mg/mL = 1.8 mL So, the nurse should administer 1.8 mL of dantrolene.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale
While a high-calorie, high-protein diet can be beneficial for patients recovering from surgery or illness, it is not the immediate next step after collecting bone aspirate specimens for culture and sensitivity and applying a cast to a patient’s lower leg. The priority is to address the infection identified through the bone aspirate specimens.

Choice B rationale
Beginning parenteral antibiotic therapy is the appropriate next step after collecting bone aspirate specimens for culture and sensitivity in a patient with osteomyelitis. Osteomyelitis is an infection in the bone, and antibiotics are typically the first line of treatment. Therefore, this choice is the correct answer.
Choice C rationale
Administering antiemetic agents would be appropriate if the patient were experiencing nausea or vomiting. However, there is no indication in the question that the patient is experiencing these symptoms. Therefore, this choice is not the correct answer.
Choice D rationale
Bivalving the cast for distal compromise would be appropriate if there were signs of compromised circulation or nerve function below the level of the cast. However, there is no indication in the question that the patient is experiencing these issues. Therefore, this choice is not the correct answer.

A. Activate the synchronization mode. B. Choose a monitor lead with a tall R wave. C. Administer the prescribed sedative. D. Verify the prothrombin time (PT).

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale
Activating the synchronization mode is important during cardioversion to avoid delivering a shock during the vulnerable period of cardiac repolarization, which could potentially cause a life-threatening arrhythmia. However, it is not the most crucial action.
Choice B rationale
Choosing a monitor lead with a tall R wave can help ensure that the cardioverter-defibrillator can sense the patient’s intrinsic cardiac activity. However, this is not the most crucial action.
Choice C rationale
Administering the prescribed sedative is the most crucial action before initiating cardioversion. Sedation is necessary to ensure patient comfort and cooperation during the procedure, as cardioversion can be painful.
Choice D rationale

Verifying the prothrombin time (PT) is important in patients receiving anticoagulation therapy, as atrial fibrillation increases the risk of thrombus formation. However, it is not the most crucial action before initiating cardioversion.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

An adolescent patient with a non-union of a comminuted fracture of the tibia is admitted with osteomyelitis. After the healthcare provider collects bone aspirate specimens for culture and sensitivity and applies a cast to the adolescent’s lower leg, what should the nurse do next?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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