A client with neuroleptic malignant syndrome receives a prescription for dantrolene 1.5 mg/kg IV. The client weighs 132 pounds.
The label on the 250 mg vial reads, “Reconstitute with 5 mL sterile water for injection, USP. Reconstitution yields 50 mg/mL.”. How many mL should the nurse administer?
The Correct Answer is ["1.8"]
The client weighs 132 pounds. To convert pounds to kilograms, divide the weight in pounds by
2.2. So, the client’s weight in kilograms is: Step 1: 132 pounds ÷ 2.2 = 60 kg The prescription for dantrolene is 1.5 mg/kg. To find out how many milligrams the client should receive, multiply the client’s weight in kilograms by the dosage in mg/kg: Step 2: 60 kg × 1.5 mg/kg = 90 mg The vial is reconstituted to yield a concentration of 50 mg/mL. To find out how many mL the nurse should administer, divide the total dosage in milligrams by the concentration in mg/mL: Step 3: 90 mg ÷ 50 mg/mL = 1.8 mL So, the nurse should administer 1.8 mL of dantrolene.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Monitoring capillary refill distal to the infusion site is a general nursing intervention during IV therapy. However, it is not specific to the administration of a vesicant chemotherapeutic agent.
Choice B rationale
Applying a topical anesthetic at the infusion site for burning is not a standard intervention during the administration of a vesicant chemotherapeutic agent. The burning sensation is not due to the IV site but due to the vesicant agent itself.
Choice C rationale
Assessing the IV site frequently for signs of extravasation is the most appropriate intervention during the administration of a vesicant chemotherapeutic agent. Extravasation, the leakage of the vesicant into the surrounding tissue, can cause severe local tissue damage. Early detection and intervention are crucial to minimize harm.
Choice D rationale
While it is important to explain potential side effects to the client, explaining that temporary burning at the IV site may occur is not the most crucial intervention. The priority is to monitor for and prevent extravasation.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
If a patient suddenly experiences numbness and weakness on the right side of their body, including their arm and leg, and a distinct droop on the right side of the patient’s face, these are warning signs of a stroke. The nurse’s first course of action should be to initiate two large- bore IV catheters and review the inclusion criteria for IV fibrinolytic therapy. This is because rapid administration of fibrinolytic therapy can significantly improve outcomes in patients with acute ischemic stroke.
Choice B rationale
Continuous observation for transient episodes of neurologic dysfunction is important, but the immediate priority is to prepare for potential fibrinolytic therapy.
Choice C rationale
Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees and keeping the head and neck in neutral alignment can be beneficial in certain situations, but it is not the immediate priority in this scenario.
Choice D rationale
Administering aspirin can help prevent further clot formation and platelet aggregation in patients with acute coronary syndrome or those at high risk of cardiovascular disease.
However, in the case of a suspected stroke, immediate medical evaluation and potential fibrinolytic therapy are the priorities.
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