A client with OCD is undergoing cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT). The client asks the nurse, "How does exposure and response prevention work in treating OCD?" Which response by the nurse accurately explains this aspect of CBT?
"Exposure and response prevention involves avoiding the triggers that lead to obsessions and compulsions.”.
"During exposure and response prevention, you'll engage in the compulsive behaviors to reduce anxiety gradually.”.
"Exposure and response prevention helps you face the situations that trigger anxiety while preventing the compulsive behaviors.”.
"In exposure and response prevention, we eliminate all exposure to the situations that cause distress and anxiety.”. .
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
Exposure and response prevention does not involve avoiding triggers that lead to obsessions and compulsions. It actually involves confronting these triggers to reduce their impact on the individual. Avoidance would not be an effective strategy in CBT for OCD.
Choice B rationale:
Engaging in compulsive behaviors to reduce anxiety is not the goal of exposure and response prevention. Instead, the therapy aims to help individuals resist engaging in these behaviors, allowing them to gradually reduce their anxiety over time.
Choice C rationale:
This is the correct answer. Exposure and response prevention in CBT for OCD involves facing situations that trigger anxiety while preventing the compulsive behaviors. This process helps individuals learn to tolerate the anxiety without resorting to compulsions, ultimately reducing the obsessions and compulsions' severity.
Choice D rationale:
Eliminating all exposure to distressing situations is not the goal of exposure and response prevention. The therapy aims to expose individuals to these situations in a controlled manner so they can learn to manage their anxiety and reduce compulsive behaviors. In exposure and response prevention, the key principle is to gradually expose the individual to situations that trigger their obsessions while simultaneously preventing the performance of compulsive behaviors. This approach allows the individual to confront their fears and anxiety, gradually reducing their sensitivity to these triggers.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Having a flat affect is not a specific indicator of delirium. A flat affect may be seen in various mental health conditions and is not unique to delirium. Delirium is characterized by acute changes in cognitive function and awareness, and a flat affect alone does not fulfill the criteria for diagnosing delirium.
Choice B rationale:
The client's speech being slow and repetitious is not a specific finding that leads to a suspicion of delirium. While changes in speech can be observed in delirium, this finding alone is not sufficient to diagnose delirium. Delirium is more about changes in consciousness, attention, and cognition.
Choice D rationale:
The client's inability to recognize objects is not a specific indicator of delirium. Delirium is characterized by a fluctuating level of consciousness and changes in cognitive function. Inability to recognize objects might be a symptom of other conditions, but it is not a hallmark sign of delirium.
Choice C rationale:
The client's manifestations developing suddenly is a key indicator of delirium. Delirium is characterized by an acute and rapid onset of cognitive and perceptual disturbances. It is often caused by an underlying medical condition or medication side effects and is typically reversible. The sudden development of symptoms is a significant clue in suspecting delirium and should prompt further evaluation and intervention. .
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