A client with OCD is undergoing cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT). The client asks the nurse, "How does exposure and response prevention work in treating OCD?" Which response by the nurse accurately explains this aspect of CBT?
"Exposure and response prevention involves avoiding the triggers that lead to obsessions and compulsions.”.
"During exposure and response prevention, you'll engage in the compulsive behaviors to reduce anxiety gradually.”.
"Exposure and response prevention helps you face the situations that trigger anxiety while preventing the compulsive behaviors.”.
"In exposure and response prevention, we eliminate all exposure to the situations that cause distress and anxiety.”. .
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
Exposure and response prevention does not involve avoiding triggers that lead to obsessions and compulsions. It actually involves confronting these triggers to reduce their impact on the individual. Avoidance would not be an effective strategy in CBT for OCD.
Choice B rationale:
Engaging in compulsive behaviors to reduce anxiety is not the goal of exposure and response prevention. Instead, the therapy aims to help individuals resist engaging in these behaviors, allowing them to gradually reduce their anxiety over time.
Choice C rationale:
This is the correct answer. Exposure and response prevention in CBT for OCD involves facing situations that trigger anxiety while preventing the compulsive behaviors. This process helps individuals learn to tolerate the anxiety without resorting to compulsions, ultimately reducing the obsessions and compulsions' severity.
Choice D rationale:
Eliminating all exposure to distressing situations is not the goal of exposure and response prevention. The therapy aims to expose individuals to these situations in a controlled manner so they can learn to manage their anxiety and reduce compulsive behaviors. In exposure and response prevention, the key principle is to gradually expose the individual to situations that trigger their obsessions while simultaneously preventing the performance of compulsive behaviors. This approach allows the individual to confront their fears and anxiety, gradually reducing their sensitivity to these triggers.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Monitoring signs of psychomotor agitation is an important aspect of assessing a patient with bipolar disorder. Psychomotor agitation is a common feature of bipolar disorder, and recognizing its signs can help in managing the patient's condition effectively.
Choice B rationale:
Assessing the patient's memory and attention is crucial in the assessment of bipolar disorder. It helps in evaluating cognitive function, which can be affected during manic or depressive episodes in bipolar disorder.
Choice C rationale:
Documenting the patient's medication history is essential when assessing a patient with bipolar disorder. Knowing the medications the patient is currently taking, as well as their medication history, is vital for understanding their treatment plan and ensuring the safe and effective management of the condition.
Choice D rationale:
Measuring vital signs and laboratory tests is an integral part of the physical assessment for a patient with bipolar disorder. Bipolar disorder can have physical health implications, and monitoring vital signs and conducting laboratory tests can help identify any underlying medical issues or side effects of medication.
Choice E rationale:
Observing signs of impaired judgment is another important aspect of assessing a patient with bipolar disorder. Impaired judgment can be a characteristic feature during manic episodes, and recognizing it is crucial for the safety and well-being of the patient.
Correct Answer is ["A","B"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Auditory hallucinations are considered a positive symptom of schizophrenia. Positive symptoms are characterized by the presence of abnormal experiences or behaviors that are not typically present in individuals without schizophrenia. Auditory hallucinations involve hearing voices or sounds that are not real.
Choice B rationale:
Flight of ideas is a positive symptom of schizophrenia. It is characterized by a rapid and disorganized flow of thoughts, often leading to incoherent speech. This symptom is part of the formal thought disorder commonly seen in individuals with schizophrenia.
Choice C rationale:
Decreased motivation is not a positive symptom; it is considered a negative symptom of schizophrenia. Negative symptoms are characterized by a reduction or loss of normal functions or behaviors that are typically present in healthy individuals. Decreased motivation reflects a lack of interest, energy, or drive to engage in activities.
Choice D rationale:
Impaired memory is not a positive symptom but is more associated with cognitive deficits, which can be a part of schizophrenia, but it falls under cognitive symptoms rather than positive symptoms.
Choice E rationale:
Delusions of grandeur are positive symptoms of schizophrenia. Delusions are false beliefs that are firmly held despite evidence to the contrary. Delusions of grandeur involve a person having an exaggerated sense of self-importance or abilities. This is a classic positive symptom seen in schizophrenia. .
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