A client's 24-hour urine for creatinine clearance reveals the client has a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of 43 mL/min/1.73 m². What stage of chronic kidney disease is the client in?

Stage 4

Stage 3

Stage 2

Stage 1

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A reason: Stage 4 chronic kidney disease is characterized by a GFR of 15-29 mL/min/1.73 m², indicating severe kidney dysfunction. The kidneys have limited ability to filter waste, leading to accumulation of toxins, fluid overload, and electrolyte imbalances such as hyperkalemia or metabolic acidosis. A GFR of 43 mL/min/1.73 m² is higher, reflecting moderate rather than severe impairment, making Stage 4 incorrect.

Choice B reason: Stage 3 chronic kidney disease is defined by a GFR of 30-59 mL/min/1.73 m², subdivided into Stage 3A (45-59) and Stage 3B (30-44). A GFR of 43 falls within Stage 3B, indicating moderate kidney damage. This stage involves reduced filtration capacity, potentially causing symptoms like edema, hypertension, or early uremia due to impaired waste excretion and fluid balance regulation.

Choice C reason: Stage 2 chronic kidney disease corresponds to a GFR of 60-89 mL/min/1.73 m², indicating mild kidney dysfunction. Patients may be asymptomatic, but structural kidney damage may be present, detectable via proteinuria or imaging. A GFR of 43 is lower, indicating more significant impairment with increased risk of complications like anemia or bone disease, ruling out Stage 2.

Choice D reason: Stage 1 chronic kidney disease is defined by a GFR ≥90 mL/min/1.73 m² with evidence of kidney damage, such as proteinuria or abnormal imaging. Kidney function is nearly normal, and symptoms are typically absent. A GFR of 43 indicates moderate to severe kidney damage, far below the normal range, making Stage 1 an incorrect classification for this client.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: IV diuretics reduce fluid overload in conditions like heart failure, but in cardiogenic shock, low blood pressure (85/50 mm Hg) and cool, clammy skin indicate poor cardiac output. Diuretics worsen hypoperfusion by reducing preload, making them contraindicated. Mechanical support like an intra-aortic balloon pump is needed to improve cardiac output and perfusion.

Choice B reason: Cardiogenic shock post-myocardial infarction, with blood pressure 85/50 mm Hg and cool, clammy skin, indicates inadequate cardiac output. Intra-aortic balloon pump therapy augments coronary perfusion and reduces afterload, improving cardiac function and tissue perfusion. The ABCDE approach prioritizes circulation, making this the critical intervention to stabilize the client’s hemodynamics.

Choice C reason: IV fluids may be used in hypovolemic shock but can worsen cardiogenic shock by increasing preload on a failing heart. Low blood pressure and clammy skin reflect poor cardiac output, not volume loss. Fluid administration risks pulmonary edema, making it inappropriate compared to mechanical support like an intra-aortic balloon pump.

Choice D reason: Supplemental oxygen improves oxygenation in hypoxemia, but cardiogenic shock’s primary issue is poor cardiac output, as evidenced by low blood pressure and clammy skin. Oxygen does not address pump failure. The ABCDE approach prioritizes circulation, making intra-aortic balloon pump therapy the priority to restore perfusion in this critical condition.

A. Passage of the endotracheal tube into the esophagus B. Infection of the vocal cords C. Movement of the endotracheal tube into the right main bronchus D. Blockage of the endotracheal tube by the client's tongue

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Esophageal intubation results in no chest wall expansion bilaterally, as air enters the stomach, not the lungs. The client’s unilateral absence of left-sided expansion suggests air is entering the right lung, indicating the tube is in the trachea but malpositioned, not in the esophagus, which would affect both sides.

Choice B reason: Vocal cord infection, or laryngitis, may cause hoarseness or airway swelling but does not cause unilateral chest wall expansion failure. This finding indicates a mechanical issue with ventilation distribution, such as tube malposition. Infection affects mucosal function, not lung expansion, making this an unlikely cause of the observed symptom.

Choice C reason: Movement of the endotracheal tube into the right main bronchus causes right-sided ventilation and left-sided collapse, resulting in absent left chest wall expansion. This malposition, common due to the right bronchus’s straighter anatomy, leads to unilateral ventilation, matching the client’s presentation and requiring urgent repositioning to restore bilateral lung function.

Choice D reason: Tongue blockage of the endotracheal tube is unlikely, as the tube is placed beyond the oral cavity. Even if obstructed, it would affect both lungs, not just the left. The unilateral absence of expansion points to tube malposition in the right bronchus, selectively ventilating one lung, not a tongue-related obstruction.

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A client's 24-hour urine for creatinine clearance reveals the client has a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of 43 mL/min/1.73 m². What stage of chronic kidney disease is the client in?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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