A client's respiratory assessment reveals crackles, decreased tactile fremitus, and a dull sound in left lower chest during percussion. Which condition should the nurse document in the electronic medical record?
Pleural effusion.
Emphysema.
Bronchitis.
Pneumothorax.
The Correct Answer is A
A. Pleural effusion: The combination of crackles, decreased tactile fremitus, and dullness to percussion is most consistent with pleural effusion. Fluid in the pleural space dampens vibration transmission, decreases fremitus, and creates a dull percussion sound while causing adventitious breath sounds.
B. Emphysema: Emphysema typically presents with hyperresonance on percussion due to air trapping, along with diminished breath sounds. Fremitus is decreased as well, but crackles and dullness are not characteristic findings.
C. Bronchitis: Bronchitis may cause crackles or wheezes due to airway inflammation, but tactile fremitus is usually normal or increased, and percussion tones remain resonant. The dullness noted here makes bronchitis unlikely.
D. Pneumothorax: Pneumothorax produces hyperresonant percussion sounds with absent or markedly decreased breath sounds. Fremitus is also decreased, but dullness and crackles are not expected, distinguishing it from pleural effusion.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Hydrocortisone: The client is experiencing an Addisonian (adrenal) crisis, evidenced by weakness, confusion, dehydration, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and hypoglycemia. Intravenous hydrocortisone provides the deficient cortisol necessary to stabilize electrolytes, improve vascular tone, and support glucose regulation.
B. Potassium chloride: Although the client’s potassium is elevated, administering potassium would worsen hyperkalemia. The priority is treating the underlying adrenal insufficiency rather than directly correcting potassium at this stage.
C. Broad spectrum antibiotic: There is no evidence of a bacterial infection causing the crisis; the client’s acute illness is a viral infection, and antibiotics would not address adrenal insufficiency. Antibiotics may be considered only if a bacterial infection is confirmed.
D. Regular insulin: Insulin lowers blood glucose and potassium, but this client is hypoglycemic and hyperkalemic due to adrenal crisis. Administering insulin would exacerbate hypoglycemia and is contraindicated in this scenario.
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A"}
Explanation
A. Opioid analgesics: The client reports severe, sharp, stabbing pain with breathing and movement due to multiple rib fractures. Opioids are effective for managing moderate to severe pain, allowing the client to breathe deeply, cough effectively, and reduce the risk of complications such as atelectasis or pneumonia.
B. Antibiotics: There is no evidence of infection in this client’s presentation. Antibiotics are not indicated for pain management related to rib fractures or atelectasis without infection.
C. Antacids: Antacids are used to treat gastrointestinal upset or acid-related conditions. They do not address musculoskeletal pain or improve respiratory function in rib fractures.
D. Bronchodilators: Bronchodilators relieve airway constriction in conditions like asthma or COPD. This client’s shallow breathing is due to pain, not bronchospasm, so bronchodilators are not appropriate.
E. Antihypertensives: While the client has slightly elevated blood pressure, antihypertensives do not relieve pain or improve respiratory effort, making them irrelevant for the acute management of rib fracture–related symptoms.
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