A college student brings his roommate to the clinic because the roommate has been talking to someone who is not present. The student tells the practical nurse (PN) that his roommate is acting strange.
Which question should the PN ask the client next?
"Are you planning to obey the voices?"
"Have you taken any hallucinogens?"
"When did these voices begin?"
"Do you believe the voices are real?"
The Correct Answer is C
The correct answer is Choice C
Choice A rationale: This question prematurely assumes the client is experiencing command hallucinations, which are auditory hallucinations instructing the individual to perform specific actions, often dangerous. Scientifically, this bypasses the essential diagnostic step of characterizing the hallucination type. Without understanding onset, frequency, and context, asking about obedience risks escalating paranoia or defensiveness. Psychiatric assessment requires chronological and phenomenological data before evaluating risk. Prematurely probing intent may compromise rapport and hinder accurate clinical evaluation.
Choice B rationale: While substance-induced psychosis is a differential diagnosis, asking about hallucinogen use before establishing the nature and onset of symptoms may be perceived as accusatory. Scientifically, the DSM-5 criteria for substance-induced psychotic disorder require temporal correlation between substance use and symptom onset. Without knowing when the voices began, this question lacks diagnostic precision. A thorough psychiatric history must precede substance screening to avoid bias and ensure accurate etiological classification of hallucinations.
Choice C rationale: Establishing the onset of auditory hallucinations is foundational in psychiatric assessment. Scientifically, the timeline helps differentiate between transient, substance-induced, and chronic psychotic disorders such as schizophrenia. Early onset may suggest prodromal schizophrenia, while abrupt onset could indicate delirium or drug-induced psychosis. Understanding duration also informs risk stratification and treatment planning. This question respects clinical sequencing, allowing the nurse to gather essential data before exploring content, belief, or behavioral response to hallucinations.
Choice D rationale: Exploring the client’s belief about the reality of voices is part of assessing insight, but it should follow initial characterization of the hallucinations. Scientifically, insight evaluation helps determine the severity of psychosis and guides treatment adherence predictions. However, asking this prematurely may confuse or distress the client. Insight is typically assessed after establishing symptom chronology, frequency, and impact. Premature probing of belief risks misinterpretation and may hinder therapeutic engagement in early assessment stages.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is choice C: Ensure that the call bell is easily accessible to the client.
Choice C rationale: Ensuring that the call bell is easily accessible empowers the client to promptly request assistance if needed during the night. This promotes safety and reduces anxiety, as the client can quickly contact the nurse if they experience an urgent need to use the restroom or require any other assistance during the night.
Choice A rationale: Reassuring the client that someone will check on him hourly may provide some comfort, but it does not directly address the client's issue of urinary frequency. Ensuring easy access to the call bell is a more targeted approach to managing the client's needs.
Choice B rationale: Placing fresh water and a glass within reach on the bedside table is a good practice to maintain hydration, but it does not directly address the client's urinary frequency issue.
Choice D rationale: Offering an evening snack and oral care is essential for the client's overall well-being, but it is not directly related to managing the client's urinary frequency at night. The primary focus should be on ensuring that the client can access assistance quickly when needed.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Aspirin is not typically contraindicated in a client who has taken sildenafil unless there are specific contraindications or allergies. Aspirin is often used in the management of acute chest pain to help prevent blood clot formation.
Choice B rationale:
Heparin is not contraindicated solely because the client has taken sildenafil. Heparin is an anticoagulant commonly used in various clinical settings, including the management of certain cardiac conditions.
Choice C rationale:
Morphine is not necessarily contraindicated based solely on the client's use of sildenafil. Morphine can be used to relieve chest pain in some cases of acute coronary syndrome. However, its use should be carefully evaluated based on the client's overall clinical presentation.
Choice D rationale:
Nitroglycerin should be withheld in this scenario. Sildenafil is a medication used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary arterial hypertension. It can potentiate the vasodilatory effects of nitroglycerin, leading to a severe drop in blood pressure. Concomitant use of nitroglycerin and sildenafil is contraindicated due to the risk of significant hypotension, which can be life-threatening.
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