The nurse completes percussion of the abdomen on an older adult client.
Which finding is considered normal for this client?

Tenderness.

Musical and drumlike.

Absent sounds.

Pain.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A rationale:

Tenderness is not considered a normal finding during percussion of the abdomen. Tenderness suggests an underlying issue or inflammation in the abdominal area, which requires further evaluation and investigation.

Choice B rationale:

Musical and drumlike sounds are considered normal findings during percussion of the abdomen. These sounds indicate the presence of air-filled structures like the stomach or intestines. Normal abdominal percussion sounds are tympanic, and they are characterized by a hollow, drum-like quality when the abdomen is tapped lightly. This finding suggests that there are no significant abnormalities in the abdominal area.

Choice C rationale:

Absent sounds during abdominal percussion are not considered normal and may indicate a potential problem. Absent sounds could be due to factors such as bowel obstruction or severe constipation, which require further assessment and intervention.

Choice D rationale:

Pain during abdominal percussion is not considered a normal finding. It indicates discomfort or tenderness in the abdominal area, which requires further evaluation to determine the underlying cause.

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Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","E"]

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Stopping the heparin infusion immediately is essential when the client's aPTT is significantly elevated (in this case, 120 seconds). A prolonged aPTT indicates a higher risk of bleeding, and discontinuing the heparin infusion is a crucial step in preventing further bleeding.

Choice B rationale:

Administering protamine sulfate is necessary when a client on heparin therapy experiences excessive bleeding or if the aPTT is significantly elevated. Protamine sulfate acts as a heparin antagonist and can reverse the anticoagulant effects of heparin.

Choice C rationale:

Notifying the healthcare provider of the significantly prolonged aPTT is essential because it may indicate a need for adjustments in the heparin dosage or therapy. The provider can determine the appropriate course of action based on the client's clinical condition.

Choice D rationale:

Drawing a prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) level is not necessary in this situation. PT and INR are more relevant parameters when assessing clients on warfarin therapy, not heparin.

Choice E rationale:

Monitoring the client for signs and symptoms of bleeding is crucial when the aPTT is prolonged, as it indicates a higher risk of bleeding. This action allows for early detection and intervention to prevent complications.

A. "Are you planning to obey the voices?" B. "Have you taken any hallucinogens?" C. "When did these voices begin?" D. "Do you believe the voices are real?" E. None F. None

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale: Safety is the priority when a client experiences auditory hallucinations. The nurse must determine if the voices are "command hallucinations" that might instruct the client to harm themselves or others.

Choice B rationale: While substance use can cause psychosis, this is a secondary assessment. Identifying immediate risk for violence or self-harm takes precedence over determining the specific chemical etiology of the behavior.

Choice C rationale: Establishing the onset of symptoms helps with chronic versus acute diagnosis, but it does not address the immediate safety risk posed by potentially dangerous instructions from the voices.

Choice D rationale: Assessing the client's insight into their condition is important for long-term treatment planning, but it is less critical than identifying the content and intent of the hallucinations.

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The nurse completes percussion of the abdomen on an older adult client. Which finding is considered normal for this client?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving intravenous unfractionated heparin. The nurse notes that the client’s activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is 120 seconds. What are the appropriate nursing actions in this situation? Select all that apply.

Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","E"]

Explanation

A college student brings his roommate to the clinic because the roommate has been talking to someone who is not present. The student tells the practical nurse (PN) that his roommate is acting strange. Which question should the PN ask the client next?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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The nurse completes percussion of the abdomen on an older adult client.
Which finding is considered normal for this client?