When developing a teaching plan for a client with newly diagnosed type 1 diabetes, the nurse should explain that an increased thirst is an early sign of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which action should the nurse instruct the client to implement if this sign of DKA occurs?
Drink electrolyte fluid replacements.
Give a dose of regular insulin as prescribed.
Resume normal physical activity.
Measure urine output over the next 24 hours.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
Drinking electrolyte fluid replacements may be necessary if the client is dehydrated due to diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). However, addressing the increased thirst, which is a sign of DKA, should involve insulin administration to correct the underlying problem of high blood sugar.
Choice B rationale:
Giving a dose of regular insulin as prescribed is the most appropriate action to address increased thirst in a client with type 1 diabetes and early signs of DKA. Elevated blood sugar levels are the cause of the increased thirst, and insulin helps lower blood sugar levels.
Choice C rationale:
Resuming normal physical activity may not be advisable when a client is experiencing early signs of DKA. Strenuous physical activity can exacerbate hyperglycemia, and the primary focus should be on insulin administration and rehydration.
Choice D rationale:
Measuring urine output over the next 24 hours is important for monitoring hydration status in a client with DKA. However, the immediate priority is to address the increased thirst and hyperglycemia with insulin therapy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Ibuprofen 400 mg every 4 to 6 hours as needed for temperature greater than 100.5 °F (38 °C). This order is questionable because ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can potentially increase blood pressure, which could be harmful to a patient with hypertension. Furthermore, NSAIDs can mask the symptoms of infection, which could delay the diagnosis and treatment of serious infections.
Choice B rationale:
Enalapril 10 mg every morning. This order is questionable because enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor used to treat hypertension. However, ACE inhibitors can cause a dry cough, which could exacerbate the patient’s existing cough due to pneumonia. Additionally, ACE inhibitors can potentially cause hyperkalemia (high potassium levels), so it’s important to monitor the patient’s electrolyte levels.
Choice C rationale:
Supplemental oxygen 10 L/min via nasal cannula. This order is questionable because a high flow rate of oxygen can potentially cause oxygen toxicity or hyperoxia, which can lead to cellular damage. The typical flow rate for a nasal cannula is between 1-6 L/min. A flow rate of 10 L/min may be too high for this patient, especially without a specified target SpO2 range.
Choice D rationale:
Continuous pulse oximetry. This order is appropriate because it allows for continuous monitoring of the patient’s oxygen saturation levels, which is crucial in a patient with pneumonia and shortness of breath.
Choice E rationale:
Send blood for a complete blood count, electrolytes, blood cultures, and procalcitonin. This order is appropriate because these tests can help monitor the patient’s overall health status and response to treatment.
Choice F rationale:
Admit to the medical floor. This order is appropriate because the patient requires hospitalization for treatment and monitoring due to his pneumonia.
Choice G rationale:
Vital signs every 4 hours. This order is appropriate because it allows for regular monitoring of the patient’s vital signs, which can help detect any changes in his condition.
Choice H rationale:
Chest x-ray now. This order is appropriate because a chest x-ray can help confirm the diagnosis of pneumonia and assess its severity.
Choice I rationale:
Sputum culture and sensitivity. This order is appropriate because it can help identify the specific organism causing the pneumonia and determine its antibiotic sensitivity, which can guide antibiotic therapy.
Choice J rationale:
Levofloxacin 500 mg intravenously every 24 hours. This order is appropriate because levofloxacin is a broad-spectrum antibiotic commonly used to treat pneumonia.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
- A bowel patern is the frequency, consistency, and appearance of a person's bowel movements. A normal bowel patern is what's normal for each person, and it can vary depending on factors such as diet, age, physical activity, and health conditions.
- A focused gastrointestinal system assessment includes collecting subjective data about the patient's history of gastrointestinal disease, signs and symptoms of gastrointestinal problems, diet and nutrition, and bowel patern. It also includes inspecting and auscultating the abdomen for any abnormalities³.
- When a client reports having a bowel movement three days ago, the first action that the practical nurse should implement is to determine the client's usual bowel patern. This will help to evaluate if the client is experiencing constipation or if this is their normal frequency. It will also help to identify any changes or risk factors that may affect the client's bowel function.
Therefore, option B is the correct answer, while options A, C, and D are incorrect.
Option A is incorrect because administering a stool softener without assessing the client's bowel patern may not be appropriate or effective.
Option C is incorrect because encouraging ambulation may help to stimulate bowel activity, but it is not the first action to take.
Option D is incorrect because recommending dietary changes may be helpful for preventing or treating constipation, but it is not the first action to take.
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