A father presents to the clinic with his ten year old child who is reporting ear pain and drainage. The doctor suspects otitis media. From the drugs below, which is the most appropriate fr e for the c e doctor to prescribe?
The antibacterial, Nitrofurantoin
The antibacterial, Amoxicillin
The antifungal Ketoconazole
The antibacterial, Vancomycin
The Correct Answer is B
A. The antibacterial, Nitrofurantoin: Nitrofurantoin is primarily used to treat urinary tract infections. It has no efficacy against common pathogens causing otitis media and is not indicated for ear infections.
B. The antibacterial, Amoxicillin: Amoxicillin is the first-line treatment for acute otitis media in children. It is effective against common bacterial pathogens such as Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae, and it is generally safe and well-tolerated.
C. The antifungal, Ketoconazole: Ketoconazole treats fungal infections and is not effective against bacterial pathogens causing otitis media. Its use would be inappropriate in this bacterial ear infection.
D. The antibacterial, Vancomycin: Vancomycin is a strong, intravenous antibiotic reserved for severe or resistant infections. It is not used as first-line therapy for uncomplicated otitis media in children.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Administer acetaminophen for the fever and continue to monitor the client:Fever associated with serotonin syndrome is caused by neuromuscular hyperactivity, not infection or inflammation. Acetaminophen will not correct the underlying cause and delays definitive treatment. Immediate escalation of care is required.
B. Increase the client's fluid intake to prevent dehydration and recheck vital signs in one hour:Hydration alone is insufficient in the presence of agitation, hyperreflexia, tremors, and hyperthermia. Waiting an hour risks rapid clinical deterioration. These findings require urgent medical intervention, not delayed reassessment.
C. Notify the provider immediately to evaluate for serotonin syndrome and initiate treatment:Recent initiation of fluoxetine combined with hyperthermia, agitation, hyperreflexia, tremors, and diaphoresis strongly suggests serotonin syndrome. This is a medical emergency requiring immediate discontinuation of serotonergic agents and supportive or pharmacologic treatment.
D. Encourage the client to rest and provide a cooling blanket to reduce the fever:Cooling measures may be part of supportive management but are not sufficient as an initial nursing response. Without provider notification and treatment, symptoms may progress to seizures, arrhythmias, or death.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Inhibits the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system:Hydralazine does not act on the RAAS pathway and does not block angiotensin-converting enzyme or angiotensin receptors. Medications such as ACE inhibitors or ARBs are responsible for this mechanism. Hydralazine works peripherally on vascular smooth muscle.
B. Promotes sodium and water retention:Sodium and water retention can occur as a compensatory adverse effect rather than a therapeutic action of hydralazine. This response is related to reflex activation of the sympathetic nervous system and RAAS. It does not explain the drug’s blood pressure–lowering effect.
C. Increases heart rate to improve cardiac output:Reflex tachycardia may occur secondary to vasodilation, but it is not the intended or primary mechanism of action. Increasing heart rate can increase myocardial oxygen demand and is often an undesirable effect. This action does not directly reduce blood pressure.
D. Directly causes arterial vasodilation to decrease blood pressure:Hydralazine relaxes arterial smooth muscle, leading to decreased systemic vascular resistance. This arterial vasodilation lowers afterload and rapidly reduces blood pressure in hypertensive crises. The effect is direct and does not rely on hormonal pathways.
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