A type 2 diabetic patient is receiving education on the meglitinide, repaglinide for treatment of hyperglycemia. Which statement below demonstrates the patient understands the pharmacologic action of this drug?
"This medication works exactly like insulin does and will actively reduce blood glucose after meals”
"if I combine this drug with a sulfonylurea, I am at an increased risk for hyperglycemia”
"This medication only works if my pancreas still produces insulin since it stimulates my pancreas to secrete more insulin”
"Once I start on this medication, I won't have to change much since the medication will keep my blood glucose levels down for me”
The Correct Answer is C
A. "This medication works exactly like insulin does and will actively reduce blood glucose after meals": Repaglinide does not act as exogenous insulin. It stimulates pancreatic beta cells to release insulin, rather than directly lowering blood glucose. The mechanism depends on endogenous insulin production.
B. "If I combine this drug with a sulfonylurea, I am at an increased risk for hyperglycemia": Combining repaglinide with a sulfonylurea increases the risk of hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia, because both drugs stimulate insulin secretion.
C. "This medication only works if my pancreas still produces insulin since it stimulates my pancreas to secrete more insulin": Repaglinide is an insulin secretagogue that requires functioning pancreatic beta cells to increase insulin release. This statement reflects the pharmacologic action of the drug and shows correct patient understanding.
D. "Once I start on this medication, I won't have to change much since the medication will keep my blood glucose levels down for me": Lifestyle modifications, including diet and exercise, remain essential. Repaglinide assists with postprandial glucose control but does not replace comprehensive diabetes management.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. "Go to the emergency room and your provider will meet you there.":Black stools can be a sign of gastrointestinal bleeding, but in the absence of pain, cramping, or other symptoms, emergency evaluation is not necessary. This response may cause unnecessary anxiety.
B. "Come to the office and we will check things out.":Routine office evaluation is not required for black stools caused by iron supplements when the patient is otherwise asymptomatic.
C. "This is expected because of the way iron is broken down during digestion.":
Oral iron commonly causes dark or black stools due to oxidation of iron in the gastrointestinal tract. This is a harmless and expected side effect, and the patient can be reassured while continuing therapy.
D. "What else have you been eating?":While diet can affect stool color, in this context the most likely cause is iron supplementation. Asking about diet is not necessary unless additional symptoms suggest an alternative cause.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Acetaminophen:Acetaminophen is an over-the-counter analgesic suitable for mild pain. It is not potent enough to manage moderate to severe pain effectively, especially when rapid or strong relief is needed.
B. Morphine:Morphine is a strong opioid analgesic used for moderate to severe pain. It acts on central opioid receptors to provide potent pain relief and is appropriate when non-opioid medications are insufficient.
C. Allopurinol:Allopurinol is used to prevent gout attacks by lowering uric acid levels. It has no analgesic effect for acute pain management and is not indicated for immediate pain relief.
D. Toradol:Toradol (ketorolac) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) effective for short-term moderate pain. However, it is less potent than morphine for severe pain and is limited by duration of use and risk of bleeding or renal issues.
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