A father presents to the emergency department with his 4 year old son. The father explains that his son had a fever, so he gave the child baby aspirin to decrease the fever and it has not worked. What should concern the nurse about a 4 year old receiving aspirin?
Aspirin has the potential to cause gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding in children
Aspirin has the potential to cause hyperglycemia
Aspirin has the potential to cause ringing in the ears in children
Aspirin has the potential to cause Reye's syndrome in children.
The Correct Answer is D
A. Aspirin has the potential to cause gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding in children.
While it is true that aspirin can cause GI bleeding, this is not the primary concern in this scenario. Reye's syndrome, a severe and potentially fatal condition, is the more significant worry when aspirin is given to children with viral infections.
B. Aspirin has the potential to cause hyperglycemia.
Hyperglycemia (high blood sugar) is not a known effect of aspirin in children. Aspirin is not typically associated with glucose metabolism issues.
C. Aspirin has the potential to cause ringing in the ears (tinnitus) in children.
Tinnitus can occur with aspirin use, but it is not the primary concern in this situation. Reye's syndrome is a more serious and immediate risk associated with aspirin use in children with viral infections.
D. Aspirin has the potential to cause Reye's syndrome in children.
This is the correct and most significant concern. Reye's syndrome is a rare but severe condition associated with aspirin use in children during or after viral infections. It affects the liver and brain and can be life-threatening.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["2"]
Explanation
Each tablet contains 8 mg of the active ingredient, candesartan. The physician has ordered 16 mg of Atacand, which means you need to give two tablets. You can use this formula to find the number of tablets:
Number of tablets = Ordered dose / Tablet strength
Number of tablets = 16 mg / 8 mg
Number of tablets = 2
Therefore, you would administer two tablets of Atacand to the patient.
Correct Answer is ["C","D"]
Explanation
A. Administer morphine 1-2 mg IV
Administering morphine is not a preventive measure for spinal headaches. It may be considered for pain relief if the patient experiences discomfort after the effects of spinal anesthesia wear off.
B. Ambulate the client as soon as she gets feelings back
Ambulating the patient too soon after spinal anesthesia is generally not recommended. Staying in bed initially helps prevent complications like spinal headaches.
C. Increase fluid intake
Adequate hydration is important after spinal anesthesia to help maintain cerebrospinal fluid volume. Increasing fluid intake can reduce the risk of developing a spinal headache.
D. Encourage the patient to stay flat in bed
Remaining in a flat or slightly elevated position helps minimize cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the puncture site, reducing the likelihood of developing a spinal headache. This position is typically recommended for a specific duration after spinal anesthesia.
E. Position the client in high Fowler's position
Placing the patient in high Fowler's position (sitting upright) may increase the risk of cerebrospinal fluid leakage, potentially leading to a spinal headache. This position is not recommended for preventing spinal headaches after spinal anesthesia.
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