A patient is ordered a phenothiazine antiemetic for treatment of nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy. The nurse will be evaluating for a positive effect. At what time should the nurse administer the drug?

as requested by the patient.

1 hour after chemotherapy administration.

The night before the treatment, the day of the treatment, and for 24 hours after the treatment.

the day of treatment.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. As requested by the patient.

Administering the drug only when requested by the patient may not provide adequate prophylaxis against chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. These medications are often prescribed on a schedule to prevent symptoms rather than treating them reactively.

B. 1 hour after chemotherapy administration.

Waiting until 1 hour after chemotherapy administration may not cover the full period during which nausea and vomiting are likely to occur. The administration schedule for antiemetics is often more extended to provide better coverage.

C. The night before the treatment, the day of the treatment, and for 24 hours after the treatment.

This is the correct choice. Administering phenothiazine antiemetics according to this schedule helps ensure continuous coverage during the critical period when chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting are most likely to occur.

D. The day of treatment.

Administering the drug only on the day of treatment may not provide sufficient coverage for the entire duration when chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting can occur. Again, the schedule mentioned in option C is more comprehensive for prevention.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Ask a colleague what the order says:

This option involves seeking assistance from a colleague to interpret the illegible handwriting. While collaboration among healthcare professionals is important, relying on a colleague to interpret unclear handwriting may introduce the risk of miscommunication or misinterpretation.

B. Contact the prescriber to clarify the order:

This is the recommended and safest option. Contacting the prescriber directly to seek clarification ensures accurate information and reduces the risk of misinterpretation or errors related to illegible handwriting.

C. Wait until the prescriber makes rounds again to clarify the order:

This option involves delaying clarification until the prescriber is available during rounds. Waiting may not be ideal if the patient requires prompt intervention or if there is an urgency in administering the medication. Timely communication is crucial for patient safety.

D. Ask the patient what medications he takes at home:

This option is unrelated to the issue of illegible handwriting on the prescription. While obtaining a patient's medication history is important for comprehensive care, it does not address the immediate need to clarify the unclear order.

A. Bradycardia B. Fluid retention C. Nervousness and tremors D. Respiratory depression

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Bradycardia

Bradycardia is not a common side effect of diphenoxylate with atropine. Atropine, which is included in the combination, has anticholinergic effects that can lead to an increased heart rate (tachycardia), not bradycardia.

B. Fluid retention

Fluid retention is not a common side effect of diphenoxylate with atropine. In fact, the medication is used to treat severe diarrhea, and the goal is to decrease fluid loss associated with diarrhea rather than causing fluid retention.

C. Nervousness and tremors

Nervousness and tremors are not common side effects of diphenoxylate with atropine. Atropine's anticholinergic effects may cause nervousness, but these effects are generally not prominent at therapeutic doses.

D. Respiratory depression

This is the correct choice. Respiratory depression is a potential side effect of diphenoxylate with atropine, particularly if the medication is misused or taken in excessive amounts. Atropine is included in the combination to discourage misuse, as it can cause unpleasant anticholinergic effects.

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A patient is ordered a phenothiazine antiemetic for treatment of nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy. The nurse will be evaluating for a positive effect. At what time should the nurse administer the drug?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The prescriber has written admission orders, and the nurse is transcribing them. The nurse is having difficulty transcribing one order because of the prescriber's handwriting. Which is the best action for the nurse to take at this time?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The nurse is caring for an older adult who is receiving diphenoxylate with atropine to treat severe diarrhea. The nurse will monitor this patient closely for which effect?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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