A female client is admitted with complaints of abdominal pain, loss of appetite, and a weight loss of 25 pounds (11 kg) in the last four months. During the admission assessment, the client tells the nurse that she has no interest in playing cards with her friends anymore and feels worthless most days. Which nursing problem should the nurse address first?
Anxiety as evidenced by abdominal complaints secondary to depression.
Imbalanced nutrition as evidenced by 25 pound (11 kg) weight loss in four months.
Chronic low self-esteem as evidenced by feelings of worthlessness.
Risk for self-directed violence as evidenced by feelings of hopelessness.
The Correct Answer is D
The client's statement of feeling worthless most days and having no interest in activities she previously enjoyed indicates a potential risk for self-directed violence, including self-harm or suicidal ideation. These signs are significant and require immediate attention and intervention by the nurse.
Assessing and addressing the client's risk for self-directed violence is of utmost importance to ensure her safety and well-being. The nurse should initiate a thorough assessment of the client's mental health, including assessing for any suicidal ideation, intent, or plans. It is crucial to establish a supportive and non-judgmental environment for the client to express her feelings and concerns.
The nurse should collaborate with the healthcare team to develop an appropriate care plan that may involve interventions such as close observation, involving a mental health professional, implementing safety measures, and providing emotional support.
While addressing other nursing problems, such as anxiety, imbalanced nutrition, and chronic low self-esteem, is important, the immediate concern is the client's risk for self-directed violence due to her feelings of hopelessness.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["1.4"]
Explanation
Calculate the total dosage required: 44 mcg/kg * 65 kg = 2860 mcg. Convert mcg to mg: 2860 mcg ÷ 1000 = 2.86 mg.
Divide by concentration: 2.86 mg ÷ 2 mg/mL = 1.43 mL.
Considering the vial contains 2 mg/mL, the nurse should administer around 1.43 mL, which can be rounded to 1.4 mL.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","D","F"]
Explanation
A) Cerebral edema: Brain injury or trauma can lead to swelling and increased intracranial pressure.
B) Correct- Near- drowning causes acute asphyxia because it prevents the person from breathing in oxygen and exhaling carbon dioxide. Asphyxia is a condition where the body is deprived of oxygen, which can lead to loss of consciousness, brain injury, or death.
C) Incorrect- Hypertension is not a common complication following near-drowning. The focus should be on potential brain injuries and respiratory distress.
D) Correct- Near-drowning can lead to aspiration of water or other substances, which can result in respiratory distress.
E) Incorrect- hyperthermia is not likely to occur in this case because the child was exposed to cold water.
F) Correct- Head trauma can lead to bleeding within the brain, such as a subdural hemorrhage.
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