A female client with genital warts who was treated with topical podophyllin and tincture of benzoin would indicate to the nurse the need for further teaching when the client says
"I need to come for frequent treatment until all the warts disappear."
I'll be glad when these warts are cured."
"I'll make sure my boyfriend is treated."
"These warts are usually spread by having sex."
The Correct Answer is C
A. "I need to come for frequent treatment until all the warts disappear": Genital warts often require multiple applications of topical therapy, and follow-up visits are necessary to monitor progress.
B. "I'll be glad when these warts are cured": While this expresses hope, it aligns with the goal of therapy and demonstrates realistic expectations regarding treatment outcomes.
C. "I'll make sure my boyfriend is treated": Unlike bacterial sexually transmitted infections, HPV infections do not require treatment of sexual partners unless they have visible warts. This statement indicates a misunderstanding about partner management for viral STIs.
D. "These warts are usually spread by having sex": Genital warts are primarily transmitted through sexual contact, so this statement reflects accurate knowledge of the mode of transmission.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Prevent reinfection during treatment: Antibiotics do not prevent reinfection; reinfection can occur if sexual partners are not treated or if protective measures are not used. Counseling about partner treatment and safe sex is necessary.
B. Treat any coexisting chlamydial infection: Gonorrhea and chlamydia often occur concurrently. Ceftriaxone targets Neisseria gonorrhoeae, while doxycycline is effective against Chlamydia trachomatis, addressing potential coinfection to ensure comprehensive treatment.
C. Eradicate resistant strains of N. gonorrhoeae: While ceftriaxone is effective against most gonococcal strains, doxycycline is not used to treat gonorrhea. This combination does not target resistant gonococcal strains.
D. Prevent the development of resistant organisms: The purpose of the combination is not primarily resistance prevention but rather to treat coinfection. Resistance prevention involves proper dosing, adherence, and avoiding unnecessary antibiotic use.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. It is a type IV hypersensitivity reaction: Urticaria is typically a type I hypersensitivity reaction mediated by IgE, not a delayed type IV reaction. Type IV reactions involve T-cell–mediated responses, such as contact dermatitis, rather than immediate histamine-mediated reactions.
B. Histamine release leads to vasodilation: Urticaria results from mast cell degranulation and histamine release, which increase vascular permeability and cause local vasodilation. This leads to the characteristic erythema, swelling, and itching associated with hives.
C. Wheals appear first followed by erythema: In urticaria, erythema and wheals usually appear simultaneously as a result of histamine-induced vasodilation and plasma leakage into the dermis. There is no distinct sequence of wheals followed by erythema.
D. The nonpruritic rash blanches with pressure: Urticarial lesions are typically pruritic (itchy), not nonpruritic, and may blanch under pressure due to transient vasodilation. Pruritus is a hallmark symptom distinguishing urticaria from other rashes.
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