A first-time pregnant woman at 36 weeks of gestation is admitted to the labor and delivery unit because her membranes ruptured 30 minutes ago.
The initial assessment indicates a 2 cm cervical dilation, 50% effacement, -2 station, vertex presentation, greenish- colored amniotic fluid, and contractions occurring every 3 to 5 minutes.
There is a decrease in fetal heart rate after the last four contraction peaks.
What should the nurse do first?
Administer oxygen via a face mask.
Apply an internal fetal heart monitor.
Use a vibroacoustic stimulator.
Notify the healthcare provider.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Administering oxygen via a face mask is the first intervention the nurse should do. This is because the decrease in fetal heart rate after the last four contractions indicates possible fetal distress, which can be caused by insufficient oxygen. Administering oxygen to the mother can increase the amount of oxygen available to the fetus, potentially alleviating the distress.
Choice B rationale
Applying an internal fetal heart monitor can provide more accurate and continuous data about the fetal heart rate and contractions. However, this is usually not the first intervention because it is invasive and can only be done if the cervix is sufficiently dilated and the membranes have ruptured.
Choice C rationale
Using a vibroacoustic stimulator is a method used to wake a sleeping baby in the womb during a non-stress test. It is not typically used in response to signs of fetal distress during labor.
Choice D rationale
Notifying the healthcare provider is important when there are signs of fetal distress. However, the nurse has interventions, such as administering oxygen, that they can and should do immediately while the healthcare provider is being notified.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While taking the blood pressure in the other arm might avoid the spasms, it does not address the underlying cause of the spasms. Therefore, this is not the best action for the nurse to take.
Choice B rationale
Using a different sphygmomanometer would not necessarily prevent the spasms from occurring. The spasms are likely not caused by the equipment itself, but rather a physiological issue within the client.
Choice C rationale
The spasms in the client’s hand and fingers could be a sign of hypocalcemia, a condition where there is not enough calcium in the blood. One of the symptoms of hypocalcemia is muscle spasms or tetany. Therefore, reviewing the client’s serum calcium level would be an appropriate action to take.
Choice D rationale
Administering a PRN antianxiety medication would not address the underlying cause of the spasms. While anxiety can cause muscle tension and spasms, there is no indication in the scenario that anxiety is the cause of this client’s symptoms.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Testing the fluid on the dressing for glucose is the immediate course of action when a nurse notices clear fluid on the surgical dressing of a patient who has just returned from lumbar spinal surgery. Clear fluid could be cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), which contains glucose. If the fluid is positive for glucose, it could indicate a CSF leak, which requires immediate medical attention.
Choice B rationale
Changing the dressing using a compression bandage is not the immediate course of action. The source of the fluid needs to be identified first.
Choice C rationale
Marking the drainage area with a pen and continuing to monitor is not the immediate course of action. The source of the fluid needs to be identified first.
Choice D rationale
Documenting the findings in the electronic medical record is important, but it is not the immediate course of action. The source of the fluid needs to be identified first.
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