A first-time pregnant woman at 36 weeks of gestation is admitted to the labor and delivery unit because her membranes ruptured 30 minutes ago.

The initial assessment indicates a 2 cm cervical dilation, 50% effacement, -2 station, vertex presentation, greenish- colored amniotic fluid, and contractions occurring every 3 to 5 minutes.

There is a decrease in fetal heart rate after the last four contraction peaks.

What should the nurse do first?

Administer oxygen via a face mask.

Apply an internal fetal heart monitor.

Use a vibroacoustic stimulator.

Notify the healthcare provider.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A rationale
Administering oxygen via a face mask is the first intervention the nurse should do. This is because the decrease in fetal heart rate after the last four contractions indicates possible fetal distress, which can be caused by insufficient oxygen. Administering oxygen to the mother can increase the amount of oxygen available to the fetus, potentially alleviating the distress.
Choice B rationale
Applying an internal fetal heart monitor can provide more accurate and continuous data about the fetal heart rate and contractions. However, this is usually not the first intervention because it is invasive and can only be done if the cervix is sufficiently dilated and the membranes have ruptured.
Choice C rationale
Using a vibroacoustic stimulator is a method used to wake a sleeping baby in the womb during a non-stress test. It is not typically used in response to signs of fetal distress during labor.

Choice D rationale
Notifying the healthcare provider is important when there are signs of fetal distress. However, the nurse has interventions, such as administering oxygen, that they can and should do immediately while the healthcare provider is being notified.

Nursing Test Bank

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale
The absence of coarse crackles is not necessarily an indication that chest physiotherapy (CPT) has been effective for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Coarse crackles are often heard in conditions where there is fluid in the airways, such as pneumonia or heart failure. While their absence might indicate that there is no fluid in the airways, it does not necessarily mean that secretions have been effectively mobilized.
Choice B rationale
An increase in breath sounds is a good indication that chest physiotherapy (CPT) has been effective for a client with COPD3. CPT is a group of therapies designed to improve respiratory efficiency, promote expansion of the lungs, strengthen respiratory muscles, and eliminate secretions from the respiratory system. When these secretions are effectively mobilized and removed, breath sounds can become clearer and more easily heard.
Choice C rationale

The absence of fine crackles is not necessarily an indication that CPT has been effective for a client with COPD. Fine crackles are often heard in conditions where there is fluid in the airways or alveoli, such as pneumonia or heart failure. While their absence might indicate that there is no fluid in the airways or alveoli, it does not necessarily mean that secretions have been effectively mobilized.
Choice D rationale
An increase in respiratory rate is not necessarily an indication that CPT has been effective for a client with COPD. In fact, an increased respiratory rate could indicate respiratory distress, which could suggest that the therapy has not been effective or that the client’s condition has worsened.

A. Mix the dextrose in a 50 mL piggyback for a total volume of 100 mL. B. Dilute the dextrose in one liter of 0.9% normal saline solution. C. Ask the pharmacist to add the dextrose to a total parenteral nutrition (TPN) solution. D. Push the undiluted dextrose slowly through the currently infusing IV.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale
Mixing the dextrose in a 50 mL piggyback for a total volume of 100 mL is not the best method for administering the medication. This would dilute the dextrose, potentially reducing its effectiveness.
Choice B rationale
Diluting the dextrose in one liter of 0.9% normal saline solution is not the best method for administering the medication. This would significantly dilute the dextrose, potentially reducing its effectiveness.
Choice C rationale
Asking the pharmacist to add the dextrose to a total parenteral nutrition (TPN) solution is not the best method for administering the medication. This would not provide the immediate glucose boost needed to counteract insulin shock.
Choice D rationale

Pushing the undiluted dextrose slowly through the currently infusing IV is the best method for administering the medication. This allows for rapid administration of a concentrated glucose solution, which is necessary to quickly raise blood glucose levels in a patient experiencing insulin shock.

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Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) receives a prescription for chest physiotherapy (CPT) to help mobilize secretions. Following the therapy, which finding indicates to the nurse that the intervention was effective?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A nurse is preparing a 50 mL dose of 50% dextrose IV for a patient experiencing insulin shock. What is the best method for administering the medication?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The nurse uses the Modified Caregiver Strain Index (MCSI) and determines that the daughter is under significant stress caused by the assumption of her mother’s care.

The nurse identifies an electrolyte imbalance, elevated blood pressure, and a weight gain of 4.4 lbs (2 kg) in 24 hours in a client with hepatic failure. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?

A client who is hypotensive is receiving dopamine, an adrenergic agonist, intravenously (IV) at the rate of 8 mg/kg/min. Which intervention should the nurse implement while administering this medication?

An intravenous (IV) antibiotic is prescribed for a patient with a postoperative infection. The medication is to be administered in 4 divided doses. Which schedule is best for administering this prescription?

An adolescent patient with a non-union of a comminuted fracture of the tibia is admitted with osteomyelitis. After the healthcare provider collects bone aspirate specimens for culture and sensitivity and applies a cast to the adolescent’s lower leg, what should the nurse do next?