A laboring client received meperidine IV one hour prior to delivery. Which of the following medications should the nurse have available to counteract the effects of this medication on the newborn?
Fentanyl.
Flumazenil.
Naloxone.
Benztropine.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
Fentanyl is an opioid analgesic and is not used to counteract the effects of meperidine in the newborn. Both fentanyl and meperidine are opioids, and using fentanyl in this context would not counteract the effects of meperidine.
Choice B rationale:
Flumazenil is a medication used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines, not opioids like meperidine. It is not appropriate for countering the effects of meperidine in the newborn.
Choice C rationale:
Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that can reverse the effects of opioids like meperidine. When a newborn has been exposed to opioids during labor, such as meperidine given to the mother, there is a risk of respiratory depression in the newborn. Naloxone can quickly reverse this effect and restore normal respiratory function.
Choice D rationale:
Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication used to treat side effects of antipsychotic drugs and is not relevant in this situation. It would not counteract the effects of meperidine on the newborn.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
While there is a risk of infection with any internal examination, it is not the primary reason for avoiding internal examinations in a client with placenta previa. The main concern is avoiding trauma to the placenta, which could result in significant bleeding.
Choice B rationale:
Although internal examinations may potentially stimulate uterine contractions, leading to preterm labor in some cases, this is not the primary reason for avoiding such examinations in clients with placenta previa. The primary concern remains the risk of bleeding due to placental disruption.
Choice C rationale:
The correct explanation for the nurse to provide is that an internal examination could result in profound bleeding. Placenta previa occurs when the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, and any manipulation of the cervix or uterus through an internal examination could disrupt the placenta and cause severe bleeding, endangering both the mother and the baby.
Choice D rationale:
While there is a risk of rupturing the membranes during an internal examination, this is not the primary reason for avoiding such examinations in clients with placenta previa. The primary concern remains the risk of bleeding due to placental disruption.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Raloxifene is not used to treat migraines. It is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) that primarily acts on bone tissues, estrogen receptors, and has anti-estrogenic effects in the breast, which may reduce the risk of breast cancer.
Choice B rationale:
Raloxifene is not used to treat hypertension (high blood pressure) It is primarily indicated for the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women.
Choice C rationale:
This is the correct choice. Raloxifene is indicated for the treatment and prevention of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. It helps increase bone density and reduces the risk of fractures associated with osteoporosis.
Choice D rationale:
Raloxifene is not used to treat heart disease. While it may have some cardiovascular benefits due to its effects on cholesterol levels, it is not a primary medication for heart disease management.
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