A mother brings her 9-year-old son to the PMHNP to evaluate him for attention deficit-hyperactivity disorder based on a chief complaint of lack of concentration in class and at home. The PMHNP finds the child also exhibits fatigue, insomnia, anhedonia, and agitation. The nurse practitioner plans to involve both the parent and the teacher in the assessment of these symptoms. Which of the following assessment tools will the PMHNP most likely utilize?
Beck Depression Inventory (BDI)
Child Behavior Checklist
Connor's Parent Teacher Rating Scales
Child Depression Inventory (CDI) 2
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: The BDI is a self-report tool for depression in adults and is not validated for assessing children with ADHD or overlapping mood symptoms.
Choice B reason: The Child Behavior Checklist is a parent- and teacher-report questionnaire that evaluates behavioral and emotional problems in children. It is comprehensive and useful for assessing ADHD symptoms as well as comorbid mood disturbances in children.
Choice C reason: Connor's Parent Teacher Rating Scales specifically assess ADHD symptoms but may not fully capture depressive or mood-related symptoms, which are also present in this child.
Choice D reason: CDI 2 assesses depressive symptoms in children, but it does not evaluate ADHD symptoms, attention problems, or teacher-reported behavioral difficulties.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Intra-articular glucocorticoids can be used for localized joint flares but are not considered first-line systemic therapy for psoriatic arthritis. They are reserved for symptom control in specific joints when inflammation is severe.
Choice B reason: Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are the recommended first-line therapy for mild psoriatic arthritis. They help control pain, stiffness, and inflammation by inhibiting cyclooxygenase enzymes that mediate prostaglandin synthesis. For patients with mild symptoms and no significant joint damage, NSAIDs are effective initial management before escalating to disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs).
Choice C reason: Opioids are not indicated for inflammatory arthropathies. They mask pain but do not reduce inflammation or prevent disease progression, and they carry risks of tolerance and dependence.
Choice D reason: Pregabalin is used for neuropathic pain and fibromyalgia, not for psoriatic arthritis. It does not target inflammation or joint damage.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Bulimia nervosa involves binge eating followed by compensatory behaviors (e.g., vomiting, laxatives, excessive exercise). This patient does not engage in compensatory behaviors, ruling out bulimia.
Choice B reason: Atypical eating disorder is a vague term not defined in DSM-5. This diagnosis is not specific enough to describe her behavior.
Choice C reason: This is the correct answer. Binge eating disorder is characterized by recurrent binge episodes with a sense of loss of control, eating rapidly, and feelings of shame, without compensatory behaviors. Her BMI and 4-month history fit these criteria.
Choice D reason: Avoidant-restrictive food intake disorder involves avoidance or restriction of food intake leading to nutritional deficiency or weight loss. The patient’s issue is overeating, not restriction.
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