A nurse admits a client in early labor. As part of the admission assessment, the nurse reviews the prenatal record and conducts an interview. Why is it critical for the nurse to verify the client's Group B Streptococcus (GBS) status and other prenatal data during this phase?

To assess the client's pain tolerance and plan analgesia accordingly

To establish the exact time of rupture of membranes to schedule delivery

To determine if prophylactic antibiotics are needed during labor to prevent neonatal infection

To decide whether the client requires an immediate cesarean delivery

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. Pain management is an important aspect of labor care, but it is unrelated to prenatal laboratory findings such as GBS status. Analgesia decisions are based on the client’s preferences and progress in labor, not infection screening results.

B. The time of membrane rupture is important for infection risk assessment but is obtained through the client’s history, not from prenatal data. It does not determine antibiotic need unless GBS positivity or prolonged rupture is documented.

C. Verifying GBS status ensures that infected or colonized clients receive intrapartum antibiotics, typically penicillin, to prevent neonatal sepsis, pneumonia, or meningitis. Reviewing prenatal labs helps guide timely prophylactic treatment and reduces neonatal morbidity.

D. Cesarean delivery decisions are based on obstetric indications such as fetal distress or failure to progress, not GBS status. GBS colonization alone is not a reason for cesarean section and is managed effectively with intrapartum antibiotics.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. IVF is an advanced fertility treatment that is not the first step in infertility management. Initial evaluation should include a comprehensive assessment of both partners to identify potential reversible causes before considering assisted reproductive technologies.

B. This response provides accurate information and reassurance while establishing the basis for appropriate next steps in evaluation. Since the couple has been trying for 14 months, further assessment is warranted, but immediate invasive interventions are not yet indicated.

C. Testosterone supplementation can actually suppress spermatogenesis by decreasing gonadotropin release, leading to reduced sperm production. It should never be initiated without a complete evaluation by a fertility specialist or endocrinologist.

D. Suggesting adoption at this stage may be premature and insensitive. The couple first requires supportive counseling and diagnostic testing to explore treatable causes of infertility before discussing long-term alternatives.

A. Oblique presentation B. Frank breech presentation C. Transverse presentation D. Compound presentation E. Shoulder presentation F. Cephalic (vertex) presentation

Correct Answer is ["B","F"]

Explanation

A. Oblique presentation: In an oblique lie, the fetal long axis is at an angle to the maternal long axis, neither fully longitudinal nor transverse. This position is considered unstable and not consistent with a true longitudinal lie.

B. Frank breech presentation: In a frank breech presentation, the fetus’s buttocks present first while the legs are extended upward toward the head. The fetal spine remains parallel to the maternal spine, which defines a longitudinal lie.

C. Transverse presentation: A transverse presentation occurs when the fetal long axis lies perpendicular to the maternal long axis. This represents a transverse, not longitudinal, lie and prevents vaginal delivery unless the lie is corrected.

D. Compound presentation: In a compound presentation, an extremity presents alongside the head or breech, but the underlying lie can vary. It is not classified solely by lie and may occur in either a longitudinal or oblique position.

E. Shoulder presentation: In a shoulder presentation, the fetal shoulder or arm presents first, which occurs with a transverse lie. The fetal spine runs perpendicular to the maternal spine, inconsistent with a longitudinal lie.

F. Cephalic (vertex) presentation: In a cephalic or vertex presentation, the fetal head presents first, and the fetal spine is parallel to the maternal spine, representing a typical longitudinal lie and the most common presentation at term.

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A nurse admits a client in early labor. As part of the admission assessment, the nurse reviews the prenatal record and conducts an interview. Why is it critical for the nurse to verify the client's Group B Streptococcus (GBS) status and other prenatal data during this phase?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A couple presents to the clinic with concerns about infertility after trying to conceive for 14 months without success. The nurse knows which of the following is the most appropriate initial response?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A nurse is assessing a laboring client at term. The provider reports that the fetus is in a longitudinal lie based on abdominal palpation and ultrasound findings. Which fetal presentations are most consistent with a longitudinal lie? Select all that apply.

Correct Answer is ["B","F"]

Explanation

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