A nurse in a provider's office is caring for a client who is at 34 weeks of gestation and at risk for placental abruption. The nurse should recognize that which of the following is the most common risk factor for abruption?
Blunt force trauma
Hypertension
Gestational diabetes mellitus
Cigarette smoking
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Blunt force trauma is a possible risk factor for placental abruption, which is a condition where the placenta detaches from the uterine wall and causes bleeding, pain, and fetal distress. However, blunt force trauma is not the most common risk factor, as it accounts for only a small percentage of cases. The most common causes of blunt force trauma are motor vehicle accidents, falls, or domestic violence.
Choice B reason: Hypertension is the most common risk factor for placental abruption, as it affects about 50% of cases. Hypertension can cause vasospasm and reduced blood flow to the placenta, which can weaken the attachment and lead to separation. Hypertension can be chronic, gestational, or related to preeclampsia.
Choice C reason: Gestational diabetes mellitus is not a risk factor for placental abruption, but rather a condition where the client develops high blood sugar levels during pregnancy and can cause complications, such as macrosomia, polyhydramnios, or neonatal hypoglycemia. Gestational diabetes mellitus does not affect the placental attachment or function.
Choice D reason: Cigarette smoking is a risk factor for placental abruption, as it can cause vasoconstriction and reduced oxygen delivery to the placenta, which can impair its growth and development. However, cigarette smoking is not the most common risk factor, as it affects about 25% of cases.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: AFI stands for amniotic fluid index, which is a measurement of the amount of amniotic fluid surrounding the fetus. AFI is an indicator of fetal well-being, as it reflects the fetal urine output and the placental function. A normal AFI is between 5 and 25 cm. A low AFI (< 5 cm) can suggest fetal growth restriction, oligohydramnios, or fetal distress. A high AFI (> 25 cm) can suggest fetal anomalies, polyhydramnios, or maternal diabetes.
Choice B reason: Fetal heart rate is an assessment of the fetal cardiac activity, which is usually monitored by a non-stress test (NST). Fetal heart rate is an indicator of fetal well-being, as it reflects the fetal oxygenation and the autonomic nervous system. A normal fetal heart rate is between 110 and 160 beats per minute, with moderate variability and accelerations. A non-reactive fetal heart rate (< 2 accelerations in 20 minutes) can suggest fetal hypoxia, acidosis, or distress.
Choice C reason: Fetal movement is an assessment of the fetal gross body movements, which are usually counted by the mother or observed by ultrasound. Fetal movement is an indicator of fetal well-being, as it reflects the fetal activity and the central nervous system. A normal fetal movement is at least 3 movements in 30 minutes. A decreased fetal movement (< 3 movements in 2 hours) can suggest fetal sleep, sedation, or distress.
Choice D reason: Fetal tone is an assessment of the fetal muscle tone, which is usually observed by ultrasound. Fetal tone is an indicator of fetal well-being, as it reflects the fetal maturity and the neuromuscular system. A normal fetal tone is at least 1 episode of fetal flexion or extension in 30 minutes. An abnormal fetal tone (absent or hypotonic) can suggest fetal immaturity, anomalies, or distress.
Choice E reason: Placental grade is not an assessment that is included in the fetal biophysical profile (BPP), as it is not a direct measure of fetal well-being, but rather a classification of the placental maturity and calcification. Placental grade is usually evaluated by ultrasound, and it ranges from 0 to 3, with higher grades indicating more calcification and aging. Placental grade can affect the placental function and the fetal growth, but it is not a reliable or consistent indicator of fetal distress.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: This order does not require clarification, as it is an appropriate and standard order for a client who has severe preeclampsia, which is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy that can cause fetal distress, growth restriction, or demise. Continuous fetal monitoring can help detect and evaluate the fetal heart rate, variability, accelerations, decelerations, and contractions, and guide the management and intervention.
Choice B reason: This order requires clarification, as it is an inappropriate and contraindicated order for a client who has severe preeclampsia, which is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy that can cause seizures, stroke, or organ failure. Ambulation can increase the blood pressure, stimulate the labor, and worsen the condition. The client should be on bed rest, with the head of the bed elevated, and receive medications to lower the blood pressure and prevent seizures.
Choice C reason: This order does not require clarification, as it is an appropriate and standard order for a client who has severe preeclampsia, which is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy that can cause edema, proteinuria, or oliguria. Obtaining a daily weight can help monitor the fluid status, the severity of the edema, and the response to the treatment.
Choice D reason: This order does not require clarification, as it is an appropriate and standard order for a client who has severe preeclampsia, which is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy that can cause hyperreflexia, clonus, or seizures. Assessing deep tendon reflexes every hour can help evaluate the neuromuscular irritability, the risk of eclampsia, and the effect of magnesium sulfate.
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