A nurse is assessing a child who has rubeola. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Lymphadenopathy

Steatorrhea

Koplik spots

Paroxysmal coughing

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. Lymphadenopathy. While some viral infections cause lymph node swelling, lymphadenopathy is not a hallmark sign of rubeola (measles).
B. Steatorrhea. Steatorrhea (fatty stools) is associated with conditions like cystic fibrosis and celiac disease, not rubeola.
C. Koplik spots. Koplik spots are small, white lesions with a red base found on the buccal mucosa, and they are a classic early sign of measles (rubeola).
D. Paroxysmal coughing. Paroxysmal coughing is characteristic of pertussis (whooping cough), not rubeola.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Urine output 25 mL/hr – This is an adequate urine output for a school-age child and does not require withholding digoxin.
B. Oxygen saturation 88% – While low, this does not directly indicate digoxin toxicity or require withholding the medication. The underlying cause should be evaluated.
C. Heart rate 64/min – Digoxin can cause bradycardia, and a heart rate of 64/min is too low for a school-age child. Generally, digoxin should be withheld if the heart rate is below 70 bpm in children or below 90 bpm in infants.
D. Respiratory rate 18/min – This is within the normal range for a school-age child and does not warrant withholding digoxin.

A. "The obstruction will be treated with a medication called indomethacin." B. "Surgical repair is the recommended treatment for infants younger than 6 months old." C. "The cardiologist will monitor your infant closely until they are able to receive treatment with a heart transplant." D. "Most cases resolve spontaneously without treatment by 12 months of age."

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. "The obstruction will be treated with a medication called indomethacin." Indomethacin is used to close a patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), not to treat coarctation of the aorta. Instead, prostaglandins may be used temporarily to keep the ductus arteriosus open and improve blood flow until surgery.
B. "Surgical repair is the recommended treatment for infants younger than 6 months old." Coarctation of the aorta does not resolve on its own and requires surgical intervention, typically within the first few months of life. Options include resection with end-to-end anastomosis or balloon angioplasty in some cases.
C. "The cardiologist will monitor your infant closely until they are able to receive treatment with a heart transplant." Heart transplant is not the standard treatment for coarctation of the aorta; surgery or catheter-based intervention is the preferred approach.
D. "Most cases resolve spontaneously without treatment by 12 months of age." Coarctation of the aorta does not resolve on its own. If left untreated, it can lead to heart failure, hypertension, and other complications.

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Body system	Findings
Respiratory	Respiratory rate 264min
Cardiovascular	Heart rate 112/min Capillary refill 4 seconds
Gastrointestinal	Hyperactive bowel sounds
Integumentary	Diaper area reddened Extremities cool Reports no tears
Neurologic	Lethargic

A nurse is assessing a child who has rubeola. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is assessing a school-age child prior to administering digoxin. For which of the following findings should the nurse withhold the medication?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is reinforcing the provider's explanation about treatment options to the parents of a 1-month-old who has coarctation of the aorta. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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