A nurse is assessing a client following administration of an opioid narcotic.
Which of the following findings indicates a decrease in the client's pain?
The client is asleep.
The client has an elevated blood pressure.
The client has an increased respiratory rate.
The client is diaphoretic.
The Correct Answer is A
Answer is: A. The client is asleep.
Explanation:
- A. The client is asleep. This is the correct answer because a client who is asleep is likely to have less pain than a client who is awake and restless. Opioid narcotics can also cause sedation, which can indicate effective pain relief.
- B. The client has an elevated blood pressure. This is incorrect because an elevated blood pressure can indicate increased pain, stress, anxiety, or other factors that are not related to pain relief. Opioid narcotics can also cause hypotension, which can indicate overdose or adverse effects.
- C. The client has an increased respiratory rate. This is incorrect because an increased respiratory rate can indicate increased pain, anxiety, hypoxia, or other factors that are not related to pain relief. Opioid narcotics can also cause respiratory depression, which can indicate overdose or adverse effects.
- D. The client is diaphoretic. This is incorrect because diaphoresis can indicate increased pain, fever, infection, or other factors that are not related to pain relief. Opioid narcotics can also cause sweating, which can indicate withdrawal or adverse effects.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Transcribing the dosage as 4.0 mg is incorrect because it represents four whole milligrams, which is not equivalent to four tenths of a milligram. This would result in a tenfold overdose.
Choice B rationale:
Transcribing the dosage as 0.4 mg is the correct answer. It accurately represents four tenths of a milligram. The leading zero is used to avoid misinterpretation and ensure the decimal point is not overlooked.
Choice C rationale:
Transcribing the dosage as 4 mg is incorrect because it represents four whole milligrams, which is significantly higher than the intended dose of four tenths of a milligram. This would result in a tenfold overdose.
Choice D rationale:
Transcribing the dosage as 0.40 mg is not necessary because it does not provide any additional information compared to 0.4 mg. The extra zero does not add clarity and can potentially lead to errors in medication administration if overlooked.
Correct Answer is A
No explanation
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