A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative and has a history of pulmonary embolism.
Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report to the provider?
Hypotension.
Dyspnea.
Dry cough.
Tachycardia.
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is choice B: Dyspnea.
Choice B rationale: Dyspnea, or difficulty breathing, is a potential indication of a recurrent pulmonary embolism and should be reported immediately. Early detection and intervention are crucial to prevent life-threatening complications.
Choice A rationale: Hypotension may be a concerning finding in postoperative clients, but it is not the priority for a client with a history of pulmonary embolism. Hypotension could be related to various factors like bleeding or anesthesia effects.
Choice C rationale: Dry cough may occur as a result of irritation or inflammation in the airway due to the surgical procedure or anesthesia. Although it should be monitored, it is not the highest priority in this situation.
Choice D rationale: Tachycardia can be a common postoperative finding due to pain, anxiety, or other factors. Although it should be monitored and addressed, it is not the most critical concern in this case. Dyspnea is more closely related to a possible pulmonary embolism and should be reported promptly.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Depression commonly coexists with eating disorders. Patients with eating disorders often experience profound sadness, hopelessness, and a distorted body image, leading to depressive symptoms. Addressing both conditions simultaneously is crucial for effective treatment.
Choice B rationale:
Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) frequently accompanies eating disorders. Obsessive thoughts about body weight, shape, and food intake are common in individuals with eating disorders. These obsessions can lead to compulsive behaviors, such as strict dietary rules or excessive exercise, reinforcing the connection between eating disorders and OCD.
Choice C rationale:
Schizophrenia is not typically considered a comorbidity of eating disorders. Schizophrenia involves distorted thinking, hallucinations, and impaired emotional responses, which are distinct from the symptoms of eating disorders. While it's essential to assess patients comprehensively, schizophrenia is not a common comorbidity of eating disorders.
Choice D rationale:
Breathing-related sleep disorder is not a direct comorbidity of eating disorders. However, individuals with severe eating disorders, especially anorexia nervosa, may experience complications like sleep apnea due to extreme weight loss. While this is a potential issue, it is not a direct comorbidity of eating disorders for all patients.
Choice E rationale:
Anxiety often coexists with eating disorders. Anxiety about body weight, shape, and food intake is a significant concern for individuals with eating disorders. This anxiety can further perpetuate disordered eating behaviors, creating a cycle that is challenging to break without addressing the underlying anxiety.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","D","F"]
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A, B, D, and F.
Choice A rationale:
The presence of protein in the urine (proteinuria) is a sign of potential prenatal complication. Normally, urine should be protein negative. Proteinuria can be a sign of preeclampsia, a serious condition that includes high blood pressure and swelling, and can lead to preterm birth or other serious complications if not managed.
Choice B rationale:
The client’s blood pressure is 162/112 mm Hg, which is significantly higher than the normal range (less than 120/80 mm Hg). High blood pressure during pregnancy could indicate preeclampsia or other complications.
Choice C rationale:
The client’s respiratory rate is 16/min, which falls within the normal range (12-20 breaths per minute). Therefore, it does not indicate a potential prenatal complication.
Choice D rationale:
The client’s report of a severe headache unrelieved by acetaminophen is concerning. This could be a symptom of preeclampsia or other serious conditions and should be investigated further.
Choice E rationale:
The client’s gravida/parity (G3 P2 with one preterm birth) does not directly indicate a potential prenatal complication. However, a history of preterm birth could put the client at higher risk for another preterm birth.
Choice F rationale:
The client’s report of decreased fetal movement is concerning. Decreased fetal movement can be a sign of fetal distress or other complications and should be investigated further.
Choice G rationale:
The client’s urine does not contain ketones, which would indicate that the body is using fat for energy instead of glucose. This could occur in cases of poor nutrition or gestational diabetes. Since the urine is ketone negative, this does not indicate a potential prenatal complication.
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