A nurse is assessing a client who is taking lisinopril. Which of the following findings should the nurse document in the client's medical record as an adverse effect?
Frequent, painless urination
Potassium 3.5 mEq/L (3.5 to 5 mEq/L)
Blood pressure 108/62 mm Hg
Frequent, nonproductive cough
The Correct Answer is D
Lisinopril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor commonly used to treat hypertension and heart failure. It works by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to vasodilation and reduced blood pressure. While effective, ACE inhibitors are associated with characteristic adverse effects related to increased bradykinin levels. Nurses must monitor for both therapeutic effects and potential complications during therapy.
A. Frequent, painless urination is not a known adverse effect of lisinopril. Although blood pressure reduction may improve renal perfusion in some clients, lisinopril does not directly cause diuresis or urinary frequency. This finding is unrelated to ACE inhibitor therapy.
B. A potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L is at the lower limit of normal and does not represent an adverse effect of lisinopril. In fact, ACE inhibitors more commonly cause hyperkalemia due to decreased aldosterone secretion. Therefore, this finding is not consistent with expected medication effects.
C. A blood pressure of 108/62 mm Hg may reflect the intended therapeutic effect of lisinopril, which is to lower blood pressure. While hypotension can occur as an adverse effect, this value alone is not necessarily abnormal unless accompanied by symptoms such as dizziness or syncope.
D. A frequent, nonproductive cough is a well-known adverse effect of lisinopril caused by increased bradykinin levels in the respiratory tract. This persistent dry cough is a common reason for discontinuation of ACE inhibitors. It should be documented as an adverse effect and reported if it becomes bothersome or persistent.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D","E","H","I"]
Explanation
This case focuses on identifying assessment findings consistent with an acute myocardial infarction (MI), specifically ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). The client has classic cardiac ischemia symptoms including chest pain radiating to the left arm, diaphoresis, nausea, and dyspnea, along with elevated cardiac biomarkers and ECG evidence of ST-segment elevation. Prompt recognition of these findings is critical because myocardial tissue damage progresses rapidly without intervention. Nursing priorities include identifying signs of poor perfusion, decreased cardiac output, and ongoing ischemia.
Rationale for correct findings:
• Tightness in chest that radiates to left arm: Chest pain radiating to the left arm is a classic manifestation of myocardial ischemia and acute coronary syndrome. It occurs when reduced coronary blood flow causes myocardial oxygen deprivation and tissue injury. This symptom strongly suggests cardiac origin rather than gastrointestinal discomfort. It is a priority finding requiring immediate intervention.
• Pain rated 7/10: Severe chest pain indicates significant myocardial oxygen demand and ongoing ischemia. Persistent pain suggests inadequate coronary perfusion and may indicate active infarction. Pain severity helps guide urgency of treatment and response to therapy such as nitroglycerin or morphine. This is a major indicator of cardiac compromise.
• Diaphoresis: Diaphoresis is caused by sympathetic nervous system activation during acute myocardial ischemia. It reflects significant physiologic stress and is commonly associated with acute coronary events. Cold sweating with chest pain is highly concerning for MI. This finding supports the urgency of intervention.
• Shortness of breath: Dyspnea indicates reduced cardiac output and impaired oxygen delivery to tissues. It may result from myocardial dysfunction, pulmonary congestion, or the body’s response to decreased oxygenation. In MI, shortness of breath is a major warning sign of worsening cardiac function. It requires prompt assessment and management.
• Heart rate irregular and tachycardic: Tachycardia and irregular rhythm suggest cardiac electrical instability caused by ischemia. Dysrhythmias are common and potentially life-threatening complications of myocardial infarction. An irregular, rapid heart rate can reduce cardiac output further and worsen tissue perfusion. Continuous monitoring is essential.
• +1 pedal pulses: Weak peripheral pulses indicate reduced systemic perfusion and decreased cardiac output. In the setting of acute MI, diminished pulses suggest compromised circulation and poor forward blood flow. This may reflect worsening cardiac pump function. It is an important sign of hemodynamic instability.
• Skin cool to touch: Cool skin reflects peripheral vasoconstriction caused by sympathetic compensation during reduced cardiac output. The body redirects blood flow to vital organs such as the heart and brain, leaving the skin cool and clammy. This is a common sign of poor perfusion during acute MI. It indicates worsening circulatory status.
Rationale for incorrect findings:
• Alert and oriented to person, place, and time: This indicates preserved neurological status and adequate cerebral perfusion at this time. There is no evidence of confusion, decreased level of consciousness, or neurological compromise. While ongoing monitoring is important, this finding does not indicate deterioration. It is considered stable rather than concerning.
• Lungs clear to auscultation in all lobes: Clear lung sounds suggest there is no current pulmonary edema or significant fluid overload from heart failure. This is a reassuring finding because acute MI can lead to left ventricular failure and crackles. Since breath sounds are normal, this does not indicate an immediate complication. It is not a priority concern.
• Capillary refill less than 2 seconds: Normal capillary refill suggests adequate peripheral perfusion despite other concerning findings. It indicates that distal circulation is still being maintained. Although weak pulses and cool skin are concerning, this specific finding alone is within normal limits. It is not considered a priority problem.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A permanent pacemaker is an implanted electronic device used to regulate heart rhythm in clients with bradyarrhythmias or conduction disorders. Postoperative teaching focuses on preventing device interference, protecting the insertion site, and gradually resuming activity. Clients must also be educated about electromagnetic interference (EMI) and proper device precautions to ensure safe long-term function. Understanding these instructions helps prevent complications and ensures effective pacing.
A. Resuming physical activity within 2 weeks is not fully accurate because clients are typically advised to avoid strenuous arm movements on the affected side for several weeks to allow proper lead stabilization. Activity is gradually increased based on provider instructions. Early unrestricted activity may dislodge pacing leads.
B. Holding the cellphone on the opposite side of the pacemaker demonstrates correct understanding of electromagnetic interference precautions. Although modern devices are well shielded, keeping electronic devices away from the pacemaker site reduces the risk of interference with device function. This reflects appropriate patient education.
C. Avoiding microwave oven use is no longer necessary with modern pacemakers because they are designed to withstand household electromagnetic fields. Clients can safely use microwaves as long as the device is functioning properly. This statement reflects outdated information.
D. Covering the pacemaker with a dressing when showering is unnecessary after the incision has healed. Once the surgical site is no longer at risk for infection, routine showering without dressings is allowed. Excessive covering is not part of standard long-term care instructions.
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