A nurse is assessing a client who received methylergonovine to treat uterine atony in the fourth stage of labor.
Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?
Seizures.
Hypertension.
Tachycardia.
Water retention.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
While seizures are a serious adverse effect of ergot alkaloids, they are primarily associated with the most severe form of ergotism, which is an overdose or prolonged exposure, or in clients with severe preeclampsia/eclampsia. Methylergonovine's more common and immediate adverse effect is its potent vasoconstrictive property, leading to elevated blood pressure.
Choice B rationale
Methylergonovine is an ergot alkaloid that acts as a potent vasoconstrictor and smooth muscle contractor, primarily on the uterus to treat postpartum hemorrhage and uterine atony. Its generalized vasoconstrictive effect, however, can lead to a significant elevation in blood pressure, making hypertension (blood pressure greater than 140/90 mmHg or an increase of 20 mmHg or more) a major and frequent adverse effect.
Choice C rationale
Methylergonovine's potent vasoconstrictive action typically causes an increase in peripheral vascular resistance, which often results in bradycardia (heart rate less than 60 beats/min) as a reflex response to the elevated blood pressure. Tachycardia (heart rate greater than 100 beats/min) is not a typical adverse effect of this medication.
Choice D rationale
Methylergonovine acts mainly on the smooth muscle of the uterus and blood vessels; it does not typically cause water retention. Water retention is more commonly associated with conditions like preeclampsia or medications such as glucocorticoids. The adverse effects of methylergonovine center around vasoconstriction and uterine cramping.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"C"},"B":{"answers":"C"},"C":{"answers":"C"},"D":{"answers":"C"},"E":{"answers":"C"},"F":{"answers":"B"}}
Explanation
Explanation
- Moderate maternal bleeding
- In a patient with HELLP and thrombocytopenia, bleeding suggests coagulopathy (DIC) or placental abruption. This is a serious worsening sign.
- Ringing in ears (tinnitus)
- Could be a side effect of magnesium sulfate toxicity or a neurological symptom of worsening preeclampsia. Either way, it’s concerning and not a sign of improvement.
- Sharp, stabbing abdominal pain
- RUQ/epigastric pain worsening into sharp pain raises concern for liver capsule distension or rupture (life-threatening complication of HELLP) or placental abruption. This is a red flag.
- BP 180/100 mm Hg
- Despite antihypertensive therapy, this is severe hypertension (≥160/110 mm Hg). Indicates poor control and worsening maternal risk.
- FHR 80/min with absent variability
- This is severe fetal bradycardia with no variability, indicating fetal hypoxia/distress. This is an obstetric emergency.
- PT 12 seconds
- Within normal range (11–13.5 sec). This suggests no current coagulopathy and is the only stable/improving finding.
Almost all findings point to worsening maternal and fetal condition, except for the PT which is stable. The nurse should immediately notify the provider, anticipate emergency delivery (likely induction or cesarean), and continue close monitoring for magnesium toxicity and bleeding complications.
Correct Answer is ["A","B"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale: The cervix being closed and thick at 42 weeks gestation is unfavorable and increases the risk for labor complications. At this stage, the cervix should ideally be effaced and dilated to allow for labor progression. A closed, thick cervix indicates poor readiness for labor, which may necessitate induction with cervical ripening agents. Failure of the cervix to ripen increases the risk of prolonged labor, failed induction, and cesarean delivery, making this a significant complication risk factor.
Choice B rationale: Being at 42 weeks gestation is post-term, which increases the risk for labor complications. Post-term pregnancy is associated with oligohydramnios, macrosomia, meconium aspiration, and placental insufficiency. These conditions can lead to fetal distress, shoulder dystocia, and increased rates of operative delivery. Therefore, advanced gestational age beyond 41 weeks is a recognized risk factor for complications, requiring close monitoring and often induction of labor to reduce maternal and neonatal morbidity.
Choice C rationale: A fetal heart rate of 150/min is within the normal baseline range of 110 to 160 beats per minute. This indicates adequate fetal oxygenation and no evidence of tachycardia or bradycardia. Since the FHR is normal and reassuring, it does not increase the risk for labor complications. Continuous monitoring is still important, but this specific finding is not a complication risk factor.
Choice D rationale: Clear to white mucus-like vaginal discharge is a normal physiologic finding in pregnancy, known as leukorrhea. It results from increased estrogen and cervical gland activity. This type of discharge is not associated with infection, rupture of membranes, or preterm labor. Since it is expected and benign, it does not increase the risk for labor complications. Only abnormal discharges such as foul-smelling, green, or bloody secretions would be concerning.
Choice E rationale: Vertex presentation, specifically left occiput anterior, is the most favorable fetal position for vaginal delivery. It allows for optimal alignment of the fetal head with the maternal pelvis, facilitating descent and rotation during labor. Malpresentations such as breech or transverse would increase the risk for complications, but vertex LOA is ideal. Therefore, this finding is favorable and does not increase the risk for labor complications.
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