A nurse is assessing a client with a temperature of 39°C (102.2°F) and a blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg. Which condition is the client most likely experiencing?

Septic shock.

Cardiogenic shock.

Neurogenic shock.

Anaphylactic shock.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A rationale
Septic shock is a severe infection leading to systemic inflammation, characterized by high fever (39°C), low blood pressure (90/60 mmHg), and signs of organ dysfunction. It is a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention.
Choice B rationale
Cardiogenic shock is caused by the heart’s inability to pump blood effectively, leading to hypotension and signs of poor perfusion, but not necessarily high fever.
Choice C rationale
Neurogenic shock results from a disruption in the autonomic pathways, leading to hypotension and bradycardia, but not high fever.
Choice D rationale
Anaphylactic shock is a severe allergic reaction causing hypotension, respiratory distress, and other symptoms, but not typically high fever.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale
The left extrapyramidal tract is involved in motor control, but lesions here would not cause right homonymous hemianopia or inability to move the right arm. These symptoms are more indicative of a lesion in the cerebral hemisphere.
Choice B rationale
A lesion in the right cerebral hemisphere would cause left-sided symptoms, not right-sided. The patient’s symptoms are indicative of a lesion in the left cerebral hemisphere.
Choice C rationale
The cerebellum is involved in coordination and balance, not in causing right homonymous hemianopia or inability to move the right arm. These symptoms are more indicative of a lesion in the cerebral hemisphere.
Choice D rationale
A lesion in the left cerebral hemisphere can cause right homonymous hemianopia and inability to move the right arm. This is because the left hemisphere controls the right side of the body and processes visual information from the right visual field.

A. A hemorrhagic brain attack is more common than an ischemic brain attack. B. A thrombolytic drug will cause the peripheral and central reflexes to become hyper-reactive. C. A hemorrhagic brain attack requires immediate intervention to prevent further damage. D. An ischemic brain attack is less severe than a hemorrhagic brain attack.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale
A hemorrhagic brain attack (stroke) is less common than an ischemic brain attack. Ischemic strokes account for the majority of strokes.
Choice B rationale
Thrombolytic drugs are used to treat ischemic strokes, not hemorrhagic strokes. They do not cause hyper-reactive reflexes.
Choice C rationale
A hemorrhagic brain attack requires immediate intervention to prevent further damage. Hemorrhagic strokes involve bleeding in the brain, which can rapidly worsen and cause severe damage.
Choice D rationale
An ischemic brain attack is not necessarily less severe than a hemorrhagic brain attack. Both types of strokes are serious, but hemorrhagic strokes often require more urgent intervention due to the risk of ongoing bleeding.

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A nurse is assessing a client with a temperature of 39°C (102.2°F) and a blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg. Which condition is the client most likely experiencing?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A patient with cerebral ischemia has signs and symptoms of right homonymous hemianopia and inability to move the right arm. This is indicative of increased intracranial pressure that is most probably due to a lesion in the:

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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