A nurse is assisting with monitoring a client who has preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate. The client's respiratory rate is 8/min. Which of the following should the nurse administer?
Calcium gluconate.
Naloxone.
Flumazenil.
Protamine sulfate.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale :
The correct answer is A. Calcium gluconate. The nurse should administer calcium gluconate in this situation because the client's respiratory rate is 8/min, which indicates respiratory depression. Magnesium sulfate is known to cause respiratory depression as a side effect, and calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Calcium gluconate works by antagonizing the effects of magnesium on the neuromuscular junction and restoring normal respiratory function. Prompt administration of calcium gluconate can help reverse respiratory depression and prevent further complications.
Choice B rationale
Naloxone. Naloxone is not the correct choice in this scenario. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist and is used to reverse the effects of opioids in cases of opioid overdose. Since the client is receiving magnesium sulfate, which is not an opioid, naloxone would not be effective in reversing the respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate. Administering naloxone in this situation would not address the underlying cause and may not improve the client's condition.
Choice C rationale
Flumazenil. Flumazenil is not the correct choice in this situation. Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist and is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines in cases of benzodiazepine overdose. Since the client is not receiving benzodiazepines but rather magnesium sulfate, flumazenil would not be effective in treating the respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate. Using flumazenil in this context would not be appropriate and could potentially lead to adverse effects.
Choice D rationale
Protamine sulfate. Protamine sulfate is not the correct choice in this scenario. Protamine sulfate is an antidote for heparin overdose, not for magnesium sulfate toxicity. It works by neutralizing the effects of heparin and preventing further anticoagulation. Since the client's issue is respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate, administering protamine sulfate would not be helpful and would not address the primary problem.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should schedule a 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) for the client because the blood glucose levels taken 1 hour following a meal are higher than the expected range for gestational diabetes. This test will help to diagnose and assess the client's glucose tolerance and determine if there is gestational diabetes or any other potential glucose regulation issues.
Choice B rationale:
Increasing carbohydrates to 65% of daily nutritional intake is not the appropriate action in this situation. It may lead to further elevation of blood glucose levels, which can be detrimental for a client with gestational diabetes. The goal is to manage blood glucose levels and prevent complications, so recommending a higher carbohydrate intake would be counterproductive.
Choice C rationale:
Obtaining an HbA1c (glycated hemoglobin) is not the most suitable action in this scenario. HbA1c provides an average of the blood glucose levels over the past few months, which is more helpful for diagnosing and monitoring chronic diabetes, rather than gestational diabetes, which is temporary and occurs during pregnancy. An OGTT is a more appropriate test for gestational diabetes assessment.
Choice D rationale:
Reinforcing instruction about insulin administration is not warranted at this point since there is no information indicating that the client is currently on insulin therapy. Additionally, using insulin as the first step in the management of gestational diabetes is not common practice. Lifestyle modifications, dietary changes, and other measures are usually attempted first.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Initiating epidural anesthesia too soon may delay rupture of fetal membranes. This statement is not accurate. Epidural anesthesia itself does not have a direct impact on the rupture of fetal membranes. The timing of rupturing membranes is determined based on the progress of labor and other clinical indications. There is no causal relationship between epidural anesthesia and the timing of membrane rupture.
Choice B reason:
Initiating epidural anesthesia too soon can prolong labor. This statement is correct. Epidural anesthesia, while providing pain relief during labor, can also cause some degree of motor blockage and decrease the woman's ability to push effectively. This can potentially lead to a lengthening of the labor process. It is generally recommended to wait until a good labor pattern has been established to avoid unnecessary prolongation of labor.
Choice C reason:
Initiating epidural anesthesia too soon can cause fetal depression. This statement is not entirely accurate. Epidural anesthesia can cross the placenta and reach the fetus, but the effect on the baby is usually minimal. However, fetal monitoring is essential during labor to ensure the baby's well-being, regardless of whether epidural anesthesia is used or not.
Choice D reason:
Initiating epidural anesthesia too soon can cause maternal hypertension. This statement is not supported by evidence. Epidural anesthesia does not typically cause maternal hypertension. It can, however, lead to a decrease in blood pressure in some cases, which is why careful monitoring of maternal blood pressure is necessary during and after the administration of epidural anesthesia.
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