A nurse is caring for a client at the clinic.
Complete the following sentence by using the lists of options.
The client is at risk for
The Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"B"}
Rationale for correct choices
• Spontaneous abortion: The client is at 10 weeks gestation with vaginal bleeding, abdominal cramping, and an open cervix, which are classic findings associated with spontaneous abortion. The presence of cervical dilation indicates that pregnancy loss is actively occurring or imminent. These findings distinguish spontaneous abortion from other early pregnancy complications.
• Cervical dilation: Cervical dilation during early pregnancy is a key indicator of pregnancy loss. In spontaneous abortion, the cervix opens as products of conception begin to pass. This finding provides objective evidence that the pregnancy is not being maintained.
Rationale for incorrect choices
• Molar pregnancy: Molar pregnancy is associated with excessively high hCG levels, uterine enlargement greater than gestational age, and symptoms such as severe nausea or hyperemesis. The client’s hCG level is appropriate for gestational age and does not suggest trophoblastic overgrowth. Cervical dilation is not a defining feature of molar pregnancy.
• Ectopic pregnancy: Ectopic pregnancy typically presents with unilateral pelvic pain, possible shoulder pain, and often no cervical dilation. Vaginal bleeding may occur, but the cervix usually remains closed. Additionally, ectopic pregnancies often have lower-than-expected hCG levels.
• Lower abdominal cramping: Abdominal cramping is a common symptom in many early pregnancy complications and is not specific to spontaneous abortion. While it supports uterine activity, it does not independently confirm pregnancy loss. Cervical dilation provides stronger diagnostic evidence. Cramping alone is insufficient as the primary indicator.
• hCG levels: The client’s hCG level is within the expected range for 10 weeks gestation. Abnormally high levels would suggest molar pregnancy, while low or slowly rising levels might suggest ectopic pregnancy or nonviable gestation. In this case, hCG does not explain the acute findings.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"C","dropdown-group-2":"A"}
Explanation
Rationale for correct choices
• Stop the magnesium sulfate infusion: The client exhibits signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity, including lethargy, shallow respirations, hyporeflexia (DTR 1+), and oliguria (urine output 20 mL/hr). Immediate cessation of the infusion is the priority to prevent progression to respiratory depression, coma, or cardiac arrest. Stopping the infusion reduces further magnesium accumulation and stabilizes the client.
• Calcium gluconate: Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity. It counteracts the neuromuscular and cardiac effects of magnesium, reversing hyporeflexia and respiratory depression. The nurse should prepare calcium gluconate IV for rapid administration while monitoring vital signs and respiratory status closely.
Rationale for incorrect choices
• Apply oxygen via nasal cannula: Although supplemental oxygen can support the client’s respiratory function, it does not reverse the toxic effects of magnesium. Oxygen therapy alone is insufficient in managing magnesium toxicity and is secondary to stopping the infusion.
• Place the client in Trendelenburg position: Trendelenburg positioning is not indicated and may worsen respiratory compromise. Maintaining a side-lying or semi-Fowler’s position is safer for airway management and monitoring during magnesium toxicity.
• Magnesium sulfate: Continuing magnesium sulfate would worsen toxicity, potentially leading to respiratory failure, cardiac arrest, and further CNS depression. Administration is contraindicated once toxicity signs appear.
• IV antibiotics: There is no indication of infection or sepsis in the client’s current assessment. Antibiotics do not address magnesium toxicity and are not warranted at this stage.
Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"A,B"},"B":{"answers":"A,B,C"},"C":{"answers":"A,B"},"D":{"answers":"A"},"E":{"answers":"C"},"F":{"answers":"B"}}
Explanation
Rationale:
• Hypoxia: Hypoxia occurs in both epiglottitis and RSV due to airway obstruction or lower respiratory involvement. In epiglottitis, airway swelling can limit oxygen intake, whereas in RSV, lower airway inflammation and bronchiolitis cause oxygen desaturation. Streptococcal pharyngitis typically does not impair oxygenation.
• Fever: Fever is a nonspecific finding seen in epiglottitis, RSV, and streptococcal pharyngitis. Infection-induced inflammation and immune response in all three conditions cause elevated temperatures. The degree and onset of fever can vary among the conditions.
• Tachypnea: Tachypnea is a compensatory response to hypoxia and airway compromise. It is commonly observed in epiglottitis due to upper airway obstruction and in RSV due to bronchiolar inflammation. It is usually absent in isolated streptococcal pharyngitis.
• Drooling: Drooling is a hallmark sign of epiglottitis due to painful swallowing and airway obstruction. It is not typical in RSV or streptococcal pharyngitis. Presence of drooling indicates urgent airway assessment.
• Exudate on pharynx: Exudative pharyngitis is characteristic of streptococcal infections. It is rarely seen in epiglottitis and RSV. White or yellow exudates on the tonsils help differentiate bacterial pharyngitis from viral or upper airway conditions.
• Wheezing upon auscultation: Wheezing is associated with lower airway involvement, commonly seen in RSV bronchiolitis. It is not typically present in epiglottitis or streptococcal pharyngitis. Wheezing reflects bronchospasm or airway inflammation.
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