A nurse is caring for a client who gave birth 4 hr ago and is experiencing excessive vaginal bleeding. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take first?
Elevate the client's legs to a 30° angle.
Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
Massage the client's fundus.
Initiate an infusion of oxytocin.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice C rationale:
The nurse should first massage the client's fundus to address the excessive vaginal bleeding. Massaging the fundus helps the uterus contract and prevents further bleeding. Excessive postpartum bleeding may indicate uterine atony, which is a leading cause of postpartum hemorrhage. The nurse should apply gentle pressure to the fundus to promote uterine contractions and reduce bleeding.
Choice A rationale:
Elevating the client's legs to a 30° angle (Trendelenburg position) is not the priority action in this situation. Fundal massage takes precedence because it directly addresses the cause of the excessive bleeding. While Trendelenburg position might be used in some situations to increase blood flow to vital organs, it is not the first-line intervention for postpartum bleeding.
Choice B rationale:
Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter is not the priority action for excessive vaginal bleeding. While monitoring urine output is essential, the immediate concern is controlling the bleeding by massaging the fundus.
Choice D rationale:
Initiating an infusion of oxytocin may be indicated if fundal massage alone is insufficient to control bleeding. However, massaging the fundus should be the first action taken to promote uterine contractions. Oxytocin can be administered afterward, if needed, under the direction of a healthcare provider.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
This statement is incorrect. The client should receive Rh(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) if they are Rh-negative and their partner's Rh status is unknown or Rh-positive. This prevents the development of Rh antibodies in the mother's blood, which could be harmful in future pregnancies if the baby is Rh-positive.
Choice B rationale:
This statement is incorrect. Rh(D) immune globulin is administered to an Rh-negative mother within 72 hours after delivery if the baby is Rh-positive. This is done to prevent the mother from developing Rh antibodies that could affect subsequent pregnancies.
Choice C rationale:
This statement is incorrect. There is no restriction on receiving other immunizations after receiving Rh(D) immune globulin. The shot only protects against Rh incompatibility and does not interfere with other immunizations.
Choice D rationale:
This statement is correct. Rh(D) immune globulin can be given after birth to an Rh-negative mother with an Rh-positive baby. This helps protect the mother's future pregnancies from the potential harmful effects of Rh incompatibility.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Raloxifene is not used to treat migraines. It is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) that primarily acts on bone tissues, estrogen receptors, and has anti-estrogenic effects in the breast, which may reduce the risk of breast cancer.
Choice B rationale:
Raloxifene is not used to treat hypertension (high blood pressure) It is primarily indicated for the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women.
Choice C rationale:
This is the correct choice. Raloxifene is indicated for the treatment and prevention of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. It helps increase bone density and reduces the risk of fractures associated with osteoporosis.
Choice D rationale:
Raloxifene is not used to treat heart disease. While it may have some cardiovascular benefits due to its effects on cholesterol levels, it is not a primary medication for heart disease management.
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