A nurse is caring for a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and has placenta previa. The client asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination. Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?
"There is an increased risk of introducing infection.”
"This could initiate preterm labor.”
"This could result in profound bleeding.”
"There is an increased risk of rupture of the membranes.”
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
While there is a risk of infection with any internal examination, it is not the primary reason for avoiding internal examinations in a client with placenta previa. The main concern is avoiding trauma to the placenta, which could result in significant bleeding.
Choice B rationale:
Although internal examinations may potentially stimulate uterine contractions, leading to preterm labor in some cases, this is not the primary reason for avoiding such examinations in clients with placenta previa. The primary concern remains the risk of bleeding due to placental disruption.
Choice C rationale:
The correct explanation for the nurse to provide is that an internal examination could result in profound bleeding. Placenta previa occurs when the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, and any manipulation of the cervix or uterus through an internal examination could disrupt the placenta and cause severe bleeding, endangering both the mother and the baby.
Choice D rationale:
While there is a risk of rupturing the membranes during an internal examination, this is not the primary reason for avoiding such examinations in clients with placenta previa. The primary concern remains the risk of bleeding due to placental disruption.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Leaving the diaphragm in place for 4 hours following intercourse is incorrect. The diaphragm should be left in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse to ensure effectiveness in preventing pregnancy.
Choice B rationale:
Removing the diaphragm by catching the rim below the dome with the forefinger is incorrect. The diaphragm should be removed by hooking the finger behind the rim to avoid damaging the dome and ensure proper removal.
Choice C rationale:
Placing a thin layer of mineral oil on the diaphragm once per week is incorrect. Mineral oil can weaken latex diaphragms, reducing their effectiveness. Water-based lubricants are recommended for use with diaphragms.
Choice D rationale:
Placing 2 teaspoons of spermicide on the inside of the diaphragm before insertion is the correct technique. Spermicide helps to immobilize and kill sperm, enhancing the contraceptive effect of the diaphragm.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Hormonal changes play a significant role in postpartum depression. After childbirth, there is a rapid decline in estrogen and progesterone levels, which can lead to mood fluctuations and depressive symptoms. Understanding this hormonal aspect is crucial for the nurse to address postpartum depression risk factors.
Choice B rationale:
Increased social support systems would be considered a protective factor against postpartum depression rather than a risk factor. Having strong social support can help mitigate the risk of developing postpartum depression.
Choice C rationale:
High self-esteem is not typically a risk factor for postpartum depression. In fact, individuals with higher self-esteem may be more resilient in coping with the challenges of postpartum period.
Choice D rationale:
Being a mother of two other children is not inherently a risk factor for postpartum depression. While having multiple children can be demanding, it does not directly increase the risk of developing postpartum depression. The hormonal changes and individual circumstances play more significant roles.
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