A nurse is caring for a client who had moderate sedation during a procedure. The client's airway is obstructing, and they have an oxygen saturation of 90%. Which of the following interventions is the first action the nurse should take?
Prepare an endotracheal tube for intubation.
Insert a plastic oral airway.
Provide oxygen using a manual resuscitation bag.
Perform a head-tilt with chin-lift.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
Preparing an endotracheal tube for intubation is not the first action the nurse should take in this situation. Intubation is an invasive procedure and should be reserved for cases where other, less invasive methods of airway management have failed.
Choice B rationale:
Inserting a plastic oral airway may help maintain the airway in some situations, but it is not the first action to take when the client's airway is obstructing and their oxygen saturation is low.
Choice C rationale:
Providing oxygen using a manual resuscitation bag (bag-valve-mask device) is the correct first action. This allows the nurse to manually assist the client's breathing and deliver oxygen more effectively than just providing supplemental oxygen through a nasal cannula or face mask.
Choice D rationale:
Performing a head tilt with a chin-lift is a basic airway maneuver, but it may not be sufficient in this situation, especially if the airway is completely obstructed. Providing oxygen with a manual resuscitation bag takes precedence.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Testicular cancer may present as a painless lump or swelling in the testicle. It's important for the client to monitor for any new or unusual lumps, as they could be indicative of cancer.
Choice B rationale:
A decreased size of the testicle is not a typical manifestation of testicular cancer. It is more commonly associated with conditions like testicular atrophy due to other causes.
Choice C rationale:
Asymmetry in the position of the testicles, with one testicle descending lower than the other, is a normal variation and not a sign of testicular cancer.
Choice D rationale:
Dilated veins above the testicle can be a sign of a varicocele, which is a separate condition from testicular cancer. It is caused by abnormal enlargement of veins in the scrotum and is generally not associated with cancer.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Fruity-smelling breath is associated with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), which is not the expected manifestation of chronic kidney disease (CKD). DKA occurs in uncontrolled diabetes and is not the priority for this client.
Choice B rationale:
Painful urination is not a typical clinical manifestation of chronic kidney disease. It is more commonly associated with urinary tract infections or other urological issues.
Choice C rationale:
Hypotension may occur in end-stage kidney disease, but it is not specific to chronic kidney disease and is not a priority in this scenario.
Choice D rationale:
Lethargy is a common clinical manifestation of chronic kidney disease due to the accumulation of waste products in the blood, leading to uremia. It is a priority as it indicates the progression of the disease and the need for close monitoring and intervention.
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