A nurse is caring for a client who had moderate sedation during a procedure. The client's airway is obstructing, and they have an oxygen saturation of 90%. Which of the following interventions is the first action the nurse should take?
Prepare an endotracheal tube for intubation.
Insert a plastic oral airway.
Provide oxygen using a manual resuscitation bag.
Perform a head-tilt with chin-lift.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
Preparing an endotracheal tube for intubation is not the first action the nurse should take in this situation. Intubation is an invasive procedure and should be reserved for cases where other, less invasive methods of airway management have failed.
Choice B rationale:
Inserting a plastic oral airway may help maintain the airway in some situations, but it is not the first action to take when the client's airway is obstructing and their oxygen saturation is low.
Choice C rationale:
Providing oxygen using a manual resuscitation bag (bag-valve-mask device) is the correct first action. This allows the nurse to manually assist the client's breathing and deliver oxygen more effectively than just providing supplemental oxygen through a nasal cannula or face mask.
Choice D rationale:
Performing a head tilt with a chin-lift is a basic airway maneuver, but it may not be sufficient in this situation, especially if the airway is completely obstructed. Providing oxygen with a manual resuscitation bag takes precedence.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should maintain the affected leg elevated on several pillows to reduce swelling and promote venous return. Elevating the leg helps minimize edema, which can be beneficial for the healing process and overall comfort of the client.
Choice B rationale:
Instructing the client to wiggle the toes once every 4 hours is not necessary and may cause discomfort to the fractured tibia. Toe wiggling does not provide any significant benefit in this context and could potentially disrupt the healing process.
Choice C rationale:
Using a hair dryer to promote drying of the cast is not recommended. Applying heat to the fiberglass cast may alter its integrity and lead to uneven drying, potentially weakening the cast's support.
Choice D rationale:
Applying heat to the client's cast for pain relief is not advisable. Heat may also weaken the cast material and is unlikely to provide effective pain relief for a fractured tibia. Instead, the nurse should follow the prescribed pain management plan and use appropriate pain medications as ordered by the healthcare provider.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The nurse's first priority in this situation should be to close the pinch clamp on the central venous catheter (CVC). This will prevent air from entering the client's vascular system and causing an air embolism, which can lead to serious complications. Once the clamp is closed, the nurse can then proceed with further assessments and interventions.
Choice B rationale:
Obtaining a prescription for stat ABGS (Arterial Blood Gas Studies) is not the first action the nurse should take in this situation. While ABGS may be relevant later to assess the client's respiratory status, the immediate concern is to prevent air embolism by closing the disconnected IV tubing.
Choice C rationale:
Placing the client in the left Trendelenburg position is not the first priority in this situation. The Trendelenburg position is used to increase venous return and is typically indicated in cases of hypotension or shock. Closing the clamp to prevent an air embolism should be the nurse's initial action.
Choice D rationale:
Checking the tubing for the placement of a locking adaptor is not the first action the nurse should take. While it is essential to ensure that the IV tubing is properly connected and secured, preventing the air from entering the CVC should take precedence in this urgent situation.
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