A nurse is caring for a client who has a placenta previa. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Nausea.
Polyhydramnios.
Uterine tenderness.
Spotting.
The Correct Answer is D
Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta implants in the lower part of the uterus, partly or completely covering the cervical opening.

This can cause painless, bright red vaginal bleeding, usually in the third trimester. Spotting is a sign of placenta previa and should be reported to the provider immediately. Choice A is wrong because nausea is not a specific finding of placenta previa.
Nausea can occur in normal pregnancy or in other conditions such as hyperemesis gravidarum or preeclampsia.
Choice B is wrong because polyhydramnios is not a finding of placenta previa.
Polyhydramnios is a condition where there is too much amniotic fluid in the uterus, which can cause complications such as preterm labor, cord prolapse, or fetal malformations.
Choice C is wrong because uterine tenderness is not a finding of placenta previa.
Uterine tenderness is a sign of abruptio placentae, which is a condition where the placenta separates from the uterine wall before delivery.
This can cause severe abdominal pain, dark red vaginal bleeding, and fetal distress.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This is part of the medication reconciliation process, which is done to avoid medication errors such as omissions, duplications, dosing errors, or drug interactions. It should be done at every transition of care in which new medications are ordered or existing orders are rewritten.
Choice B is wrong because the nurse should not encourage the client to make his own list after he returns to his home. The nurse should provide the client with an updated and accurate list of medications before discharge and instruct the client to keep it with him at all times.
Choice C is wrong because the nurse should not include any adverse effects of the medications the client might develop. The nurse should include any known allergies or adverse reactions the client has experienced in the past, but not potential adverse effects that have not occurred.
Choice D is wrong because the nurse should not exclude nutritional supplements from the list of medications the client reports. The nurse should include all prescription medications, herbals, vitamins, nutritional supplements, over-the-counter drugs, vaccines, diagnostic and contrast agents, radioactive medications, parenteral nutrition, blood derivatives, and intravenous solutions in the medication reconciliation process.
Some of these products may interact with prescribed medications or affect laboratory results.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A.
Choice A rationale:
Documenting the client’s condition every 15 minutes is a crucial part of using restraints. Regular documentation helps ensure the safety and well-being of the client, as it allows for continuous monitoring and timely intervention if necessary.
Choice B rationale:
Requesting a PRN (as needed) restraint prescription for clients who are aggressive is not a recommended practice. Restraints should only be used as a last resort and must be based on a thorough assessment of the client’s condition, not solely on their behavior.
Choice C rationale:
Attaching the restraint to the bed’s side rails is not recommended. This can increase the risk of injury to the client. Restraints should be attached to a part of the bed frame that moves with the client, such as the head or footboard.
Choice D rationale:
While it’s important to regularly check and adjust restraints for comfort and safety, there’s no specific guideline that restraints should be removed every 4 hours. The frequency of removal and repositioning will depend on the individual client’s condition and needs.
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