A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure.
The client states she has recently been bothered by a non-productive cough.
Which of the following medications should the nurse associate with the non-productive cough?
Captopril.
Metoprolol.
Furosemide.
Digoxin.
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is A. Captopril.
Choice A: Captopril Captopril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor used to treat conditions like high blood pressure and heart failure. One of the common side effects of ACE inhibitors is a persistent, non-productive cough. This cough occurs due to the accumulation of bradykinin, a potent peptide that can induce coughing.
Choice B: Metoprolol Metoprolol is a beta-blocker used to treat high blood pressure and heart failure. Common side effects include dizziness, slow or irregular heartbeat, and unusual tiredness or weakness. However, it is not typically associated with a non-productive cough.
Choice C: Furosemide Furosemide is a loop diuretic used to treat fluid retention (edema) in people with congestive heart failure, liver disease, or a kidney disorder. While it can cause side effects like diarrhea, constipation, and loss of appetite, a non-productive cough is not a typical side effect of Furosemide.
Choice D: Digoxin Digoxin is used to treat heart failure and irregular heartbeat. Common side effects include dizziness, slow or irregular heartbeat, and unusual tiredness or weakness. However, a non-productive cough is not a typical side effect of Digoxin.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should instruct the client to discontinue the dose of acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin) 2 weeks before surgery. Aspirin is an antiplatelet medication that can increase the risk of bleeding during and after surgery. Discontinuing it before surgery helps reduce the risk of excessive bleeding during the procedure. The recommended time frame for discontinuation may vary based on the patient's surgical procedure and the surgeon's preferences. However, 2 weeks is a common guideline to ensure that the antiplatelet effects of aspirin have diminished.
Choice B rationale:
Decreasing the dose by half 2 weeks before surgery may not be sufficient to minimize the risk of bleeding associated with aspirin. It is generally recommended to discontinue the medication completely to ensure that the antiplatelet effect has worn off.
Choice C rationale:
Taking the originally prescribed dose of aspirin the week of surgery is not advisable because it can increase the risk of bleeding during the surgical procedure. It is important to discontinue aspirin well before the surgery.
Choice D rationale:
Doubling the dose of aspirin the week of surgery is contraindicated as it can significantly increase the risk of bleeding. This choice is not recommended in the context of preoperative management.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Tuberculosis treatment with rifampin typically lasts 6 to 9 months. Lifelong therapy is not required for TB, and unnecessary prolonged use increases the risk of drug resistance and hepatotoxicity.
Choice B rationale: Rifampin induces liver enzymes that accelerate the metabolism of oral contraceptives, making them less effective. It does not cause amenorrhea, but it necessitates the use of non-hormonal backup contraception.
Choice C rationale: Rifampin causes a harmless reddish-orange discoloration of urine, sweat, tears, and saliva. This can permanently stain soft contact lenses, so clients are advised to wear eyeglasses during the treatment course.
Choice D rationale: A yellow tint to the skin or sclera indicates jaundice, which is a sign of hepatotoxicity. This is a serious adverse effect rather than an expected reaction and must be reported immediately.
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