A nurse is caring for a client who has hyponatremia and is receiving an infusion of a prescribed hypertonic solution.
Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the treatment is effective?
Improved cognition.
Cardiac arrhythmias absent.
Decreased vomiting.
Absent Chvostek’s sign.
The Correct Answer is A
Hyponatremia is a condition where the sodium level in the blood is too low, which can cause confusion, lethargy, seizures, and coma. A hypertonic solution is a fluid that has a higher concentration of solutes than the blood, which can help raise the sodium level and reduce the brain swelling caused by hyponatremia. Therefore, improved cognition indicates that the treatment is effective.
Choice B. Cardiac arrhythmias absent.
Cardiac arrhythmias are not a common symptom of hyponatremia unless it is severe or rapid in onset.
Therefore, their absence does not necessarily indicate that the treatment is effective.
Choice C. Decreased vomiting.
Vomiting can be a cause or a consequence of hyponatremia, depending on the underlying condition.
Decreased vomiting may indicate that the patient is less nauseated, but it does not reflect the sodium level or the brain status.
Choice D. Absent Chvostek’s sign.
Chvostek’s sign is a facial twitching that occurs when tapping on the cheek, which indicates hypocalcemia (low calcium level).
It is not related to hyponatremia or hypertonic solution.
Normal ranges for sodium are 135 to 145 mEq/L and for calcium are 8.5 to 10.5 mg/dL.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Pruritus is a common adverse effect of morphine administered via continuous epidural infusion. It is caused by the release of histamine from mast cells in the skin. Pruritus can be treated with antihistamines or opioid antagonists. Choice A is wrong because gastric bleeding is not a common adverse effect of morphine administered via continuous epidural infusion.
Gastric bleeding can occur due to peptic ulcer disease, nonsteroidal anti inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), or anticoagulants.
Choice C is wrong because cough is not a common adverse effect of morphine administered via continuous epidural infusion.
Cough can be caused by respiratory infections, asthma, or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
Choice D is wrong because tachypnea is not a common adverse effect of morphine administered via continuous epidural infusion.
Tachypnea can be caused by hypoxia, anxiety, pain, or fever. Morphine can cause respiratory depression, which is characterized by bradypnea, not tachypnea.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct sequence for mixing regular insulin and NPH insulin in the same syringe is important to ensure proper dosing. The nurse should follow these steps:
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Inject air into the NPH (intermediate-acting) insulin vial: Injecting air into the NPH vial first helps to equalize the pressure in the vial, making it easier to withdraw the insulin later. This step is done first to avoid contaminating the regular insulin vial with NPH insulin.
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Inject air into the regular insulin vial: Next, inject an amount of air equal to the intended regular insulin dose into the regular insulin vial.This also helps to equalize the pressure and makes it easier to withdraw the insulin.
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Withdraw the regular insulin from the vial: The nurse should withdraw the regular insulin first because it is clear and not contaminated. This prevents any NPH insulin from mixing into the regular insulin vial.
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Withdraw the regular insulin from the vial: Finally, the nurse withdraws the NPH insulin. Since the regular insulin has already been drawn up, there is no risk of contaminating the regular insulin with NPH insulin.
This sequence ensures that you don't contaminate the vials, and you accurately withdraw the appropriate doses of each insulin type.
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