A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving heparin via continuous IV. The client has an aPTT of 90 seconds. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following changes in their vital signs?
Increased pulse rate.
Increased blood pressure.
Decreased temperature.
Decreased respiratory rate.
The Correct Answer is A
An aPTT of 90 seconds is much higher than the normal range of 30-40 seconds, which means the blood takes longer to clot and the client is at risk of bleeding. An increased pulse rate is a sign of blood loss and shock.
Choice B is wrong because increased blood pressure is not a sign of bleeding, but rather a sign of hypertension or stress.
Choice C is wrong because decreased temperature is not a sign of bleeding, but rather a sign of hypothermia or infection.
Choice D is wrong because decreased respiratory rate is not a sign of bleeding, but rather a sign of respiratory depression or sedation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B"]
Explanation
Fluticasone is an inhaled steroid that prevents the symptoms of asthma by decreasing inflammation in the airways. It is not used to treat a sudden asthma attack.
Some additional information to explain why the other choices are wrong are:
Choice C is wrong because soaking the inhaler in water after use can damage the device and affect its performance.
Choice D is wrong because fluticasone is not a rescue inhaler that can be used as needed for shortness of breath.It is a controller inhaler that should be used regularly as prescribed by the doctor.
Choice E is wrong because shaking the device prior to administration is not necessary for a fluticasone metered-dose inhaler (MDI).However, it is recommended for fluticasone inhalation powder (Flovent Diskus). Some normal ranges that may be applicable are:
The usual dose of fluticasone MDI for adults and children 12 years and older is 55 to 232 mcg twice a day.The usual dose of fluticasone MDI for children 4 to 11 years old is 30 mcg twice a day. The maximum dose of fluticasone MDI for adults and children 12 years and older is 1000 mcg twice a day.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Hot flashes are a common side effect of tamoxifen, which is hormone therapy for breast cancer that blocks the action of estrogen.
Tamoxifen can cause menopause-like symptoms in women, such as irregular or missing periods, vaginal discharge or bleeding, and mood changes. Choice A is wrong because tinnitus (ringing in the ears) is not a known side effect of tamoxifen.
Choice C is wrong because urinary frequency (needing to urinate more often) is not a known side effect of tamoxifen.
Choice D is wrong because constipation (difficulty passing stools) is not a known side effect of tamoxifen.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.