A nurse is caring for a client who is to receive potassium replacement. The provider’s prescription reads, “Potassium chloride 30 mEq in 0.9% sodium chloride 100 mL IV over 30 min.” For which of the following reasons should the nurse clarify this prescription with the provider?

The potassium infusion rate is too rapid.

Another formulation of potassium should be given IV.

Potassium chloride should be diluted in dextrose 5% in water.

The client should be treated by giving potassium by IV bolus.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

According to various guidelines12345, the recommended rate of intravenous potassium replacement is 10-20 mEq/h with continuous ECG monitoring. The maximum rate is 40 mEq/h in emergency situations. The prescription given by the provider exceeds this limit and could cause cardiac arrhythmias or hyperkalemia.

Choice B is wrong because potassium chloride is a common and appropriate formulation of potassium for intravenous administration.

Choice C is wrong because potassium chloride should not be diluted in dextrose 5% in water, as this could cause hyperglycemia or osmotic diuresis.

Choice D is wrong because potassium should never be given by IV bolus, as this could cause cardiac arrest or tissue necrosis.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Clozapine is an antipsychotic medication that is used to treat schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders. It works by affecting the balance of certain chemicals in the brain.

Choice A is wrong because clozapine can cause weight gain, not weight loss, in some people. This can increase the risk of diabetes, high cholesterol, and heart problems. The nurse should advise the client to monitor their weight regularly and to follow a healthy diet and exercise plan.

Choice B is wrong because ringing in the ears (tinnitus) is not an expected adverse effect of clozapine. However, clozapine can cause other ear problems, such as otitis media (middle ear infection) or otitis externa (outer ear infection). The nurse should instruct the client to report any ear pain, discharge, or hearing loss to their provider.

Choice D is wrong because diarrhoea is not a common adverse effect of clozapine. However, clozapine can cause constipation, which can be severe and lead to bowel obstruction or perforation. The nurse should advise the client to drink plenty of fluids, eat high-fibre foods, and use laxatives as prescribed by their provider.

Choice C is correct because fever is a serious adverse effect of clozapine that may indicate a life-threatening condition called

agranulocytosis. Agranulocytosis is a severe reduction in white blood cells that can impair the immune system and increase the risk of infections. The nurse should instruct the client to notify their provider immediately if they develop a fever or any signs of infection, such as sore throat, cough, or flu-like symptoms. The client should also have regular blood tests to monitor their white blood cell count while taking clozapine.

A. Morphine 6 mg IV push every 3 hr PRN acute pain. B. MS6 mg IV push every 3 hr PRN acute pain. C. MSO4 6 mg IV push every 3 hr PRN acute pain. D. Morphine 6.0 mg IV push every 3 hr PRN acute pain.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

This is because it uses the full name of the drug, the exact dose, the route of administration, the frequency, and the indication for use. It also avoids any abbreviations that could be confused with other drugs or measurements.

Choice B is wrong because MS is an abbreviation for morphine sulfate which could be mistaken for magnesium sulfate.

Choice C is wrong because MSO4 is an abbreviation for morphine sulfate that could be mistaken for magnesium sulfate.

Choice D is wrong because 6.0 mg could be misread as 60 mg and lead to a tenfold overdose.

Normal ranges for morphine dosage depend on the route of administration, the indication, and the patient’s tolerance and response.

For acute pain, the usual oral dose is 10 to 30 mg every 4 hours as needed. For chronic pain, the usual oral dose is 15 to 30 mg every 8 to 12 hours as needed.

For intravenous (IV) administration, the usual dose is 2.5 to 15 mg every 4 hours as needed.

The morphine equivalent daily dose (MEDD) is a concept that attempts to establish an equivalency in terms of dose when comparing any opioid to morphine.

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A nurse is caring for a client who is to receive potassium replacement. The provider’s prescription reads, “Potassium chloride 30 mEq in 0.9% sodium chloride 100 mL IV over 30 min.” For which of the following reasons should the nurse clarify this prescription with the provider?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for clozapine. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is receiving a medication prescription by telephone from a provider. The provider states, “Administer 6 milligrams of morphine IV push every 3 hours as needed for acute pain.” How should the nurse transcribe the prescription in the client’s medical record?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is reviewing the medical record of an adult client who has a fever and a prescription for acetaminophen. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a contraindication for receiving this medication?

A nurse is preparing to administer amphotericin B lipid complex via intermittent IV bolus to a client who has infective endocarditis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

A nurse is preparing to initiate IV therapy for a client. Which of the following sites should the nurse use to place the peripheral IV catheter?

A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving morphine via continuous epidural infusion. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

A nurse is administering 4 mg of hydromorphone to a client by mouth every 4 hr. The medication is provided as hydromorphone 8 mg per tablet. Which of the following actions is appropriate for the nurse to take?

A nurse is assessing a client’s IV infusion site and notes that the site is cool and edematous. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving heparin via continuous IV. The client has an aPTT of 90 seconds. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following changes in their vital signs?

A nurse recently administered filgrastim intravenously to a client who has cancer and is receiving cytotoxic chemotherapy. For which of the following data, discovered after the medication was administered, should the nurse file an incident report?