A nurse is caring for a client who has rubella at the time of delivery and asks why her newborn is being placed in isolation. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?

"The child might develop encephalitis, a complication of rubella."
"Exposure to rubella will suppress the newborn's immune response."
"The newborn is at risk for developing a TORCH infection."
"The newborn might be actively shedding the virus."
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A: While rubella can lead to complications like encephalitis, this answer does not address the reason for isolation precautions for the newborn.
Choice B: While rubella can suppress the immune response in general, it does not explain the need for isolation of the newborn specifically.
Choice C: TORCH (Toxoplasmosis, Rubella, Cytomegalovirus, and Herpes) infections are a group of infections that can be transmitted from mother to fetus during pregnancy. While rubella is part of the TORCH infections, this answer does not specifically address the reason for isolation of the newborn after delivery.
Choice D: Rubella, also known as German measles, is a contagious viral infection. Newborns born to mothers with rubella can be at risk because the virus can be transmitted to them during delivery. The newborn might be actively shedding the virus, which is why isolation precautions are necessary to prevent the spread of the infection to other vulnerable newborns or individuals.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Fetal head compression: Fetal head compression would typically result in variable decelerations, not late decelerations.
B) Umbilical cord compression: Umbilical cord compression is associated with variable decelerations, not late decelerations.
C) Uteroplacental insufficiency: Late decelerations occur due to decreased blood flow and oxygen supply to the fetus, which can be caused by uteroplacental insufficiency. This condition can lead to fetal hypoxia during contractions.
D) Maternal bradycardia: Maternal bradycardia would not directly cause late decelerations in the fetal heart rate.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is: c. 42022
Choice A: 40122
Reason: This choice is incorrect because it indicates 4 pregnancies (correct), 0 term births (correct), 1 preterm birth (correct), 2 abortions (correct), but 2 living children (incorrect). The client has 2 living children, which is correct, but the term and preterm counts are not accurate.
Choice B: 20020
Reason: This choice is incorrect because it indicates 2 pregnancies (incorrect), 0 term births (correct), 0 preterm births (incorrect), 2 abortions (correct), and 0 living children (incorrect). The client has had 4 pregnancies, 1 preterm birth, and 2 living children.
Choice C: 42022
Reason: This choice is correct. It indicates 4 pregnancies (current pregnancy, elective abortion, twins, spontaneous abortion), 0 term births, 2 preterm births (twins at 36 weeks), 2 abortions (elective at 9 weeks, spontaneous at 15 weeks), and 2 living children (twins).
Choice D:
The GTPAL system is used to assess a client's obstetric history:
- G (Gravida): The total number of pregnancies, including the current one.
- T (Term births): The number of pregnancies carried to at least 37 weeks.
- P (Preterm births): The number of pregnancies delivered between 20 and 36 weeks, 6 days.
- A (Abortions): The number of pregnancies ending before 20 weeks (spontaneous or elective).
- L (Living children): The number of children currently alive.
For this client:
G (Gravida): 4 (one elective abortion, one twin pregnancy, one spontaneous abortion, and the current pregnancy).
- T (Term births): 0 (the twin pregnancy was delivered at 36 weeks, which is preterm).
- P (Preterm births): 1 (twins delivered at 36 weeks count as one preterm birth).
- A (Abortions): 2 (one elective abortion at 9 weeks, one spontaneous abortion at 15 weeks).
- L (Living children): 2 (the twins).
Thus, the GTPAL for this client is 4-0-1-2-2.

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