A nurse is caring for a client who has rubella at the time of delivery and asks why her newborn is being placed in isolation. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?
"The child might develop encephalitis, a complication of rubella."
"Exposure to rubella will suppress the newborn's immune response."
"The newborn is at risk for developing a TORCH infection."
"The newborn might be actively shedding the virus."
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A: While rubella can lead to complications like encephalitis, this answer does not address the reason for isolation precautions for the newborn.
Choice B: While rubella can suppress the immune response in general, it does not explain the need for isolation of the newborn specifically.
Choice C: TORCH (Toxoplasmosis, Rubella, Cytomegalovirus, and Herpes) infections are a group of infections that can be transmitted from mother to fetus during pregnancy. While rubella is part of the TORCH infections, this answer does not specifically address the reason for isolation of the newborn after delivery.
Choice D: Rubella, also known as German measles, is a contagious viral infection. Newborns born to mothers with rubella can be at risk because the virus can be transmitted to them during delivery. The newborn might be actively shedding the virus, which is why isolation precautions are necessary to prevent the spread of the infection to other vulnerable newborns or individuals.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A: Administering a 500 mL bolus of 5% dextrose in water is not necessary before the epidural administration, and it may not be recommended in active labor as it can increase the risk of fluid overload.
B: The duration of the anesthetic effect of the epidural can vary depending on the medication used, and it is not the nurse's priority during the preparation process.
C: Prior to administering epidural analgesia, the nurse should obtain a 30minute electronic fetal monitoring (EFM) strip to assess the fetal heart rate and monitor for any signs of fetal distress during the procedure.
D: Having the client stand very still with her arms at her side is not practical or necessary for epidural administration and could be uncomfortable for the client during labor.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A: The first priority assessment finding to report to the provider is contractions lasting 2 minutes and with no rest between contractions. Prolonged contractions without adequate rest can lead to uterine hyperstimulation and fetal distress, potentially compromising the wellbeing of both the client and the baby. The provider needs to be informed immediately for further
evaluation and intervention.
Choice B: Pressure on the perineum and the desire to bear down indicate that the client is experiencing the urge to push, which is expected during the second stage of labor, not during the active phase of the first stage. It is not the first priority to report.
Choice C: Clear fluid discharge from the vagina can indicate rupture of membranes, but it is not an immediate concern unless the fluid is meconiumstained or there are other signs of fetal distress.
Choice D: Passage of a bloodtinged mucous plug (also known as "bloody show") is a common sign that labor is approaching, but it is not an immediate concern unless there are other signs of labor progression or complications. It is not the first priority to report.
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